##\lim_{x \to0} \left(\dfrac{1}{\sin^2 x}-\dfrac{1}{x^2}\right)##

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit as \( x \) approaches 0 for the expression \( \left(\dfrac{1}{\sin^2 x}-\dfrac{1}{x^2}\right) \). Participants explore various mathematical approaches to understand the behavior of this limit.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using different methods such as L'Hôpital's rule, Taylor series expansion, and algebraic manipulation to analyze the limit. Some express uncertainty about whether the limit is finite and how to demonstrate this.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes multiple attempts to evaluate the limit, with some participants suggesting the use of L'Hôpital's rule and Taylor series as potential strategies. There is no explicit consensus on the best approach, but several lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note the need to clarify whether the limit is finite, while others provide insights into the behavior of the functions involved as \( x \) approaches 0.

littlemathquark
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Homework Statement
Find ##\lim_{x \to0} \left(\dfrac{1}{\sin^2 x}-\dfrac{1}{x^2}\right)##
Relevant Equations
##\lim_{x \to0} \left(\dfrac{1}{\sin^2 x}-\dfrac{1}{x^2}\right)##
My solution is:

Let ##\lim_{ x \to 0}\left(\dfrac {1}{\sin^2x}-\dfrac1{x^2}\right)=L##

Let ##x=2y##

##\lim_{ y \to 0}\left(\dfrac {1}{\sin^22y}-\dfrac1{4y^2}\right)=\lim_{ y \to 0}\left(\dfrac1{4\sin^2y\cdot\cos^2y}-\dfrac1{4y^2}\right)=L##

##=\dfrac14\lim_{ y \to 0}\left(\dfrac1{\cos^2{y}}+\dfrac1{\sin^2{y}}-\dfrac1{y^2}\right)=\dfrac14+\dfrac{L}{4}=L##

##L=\dfrac13##

But I think I must show that firstly this limit L is a infinity number but I don't know how. Please help.
 
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You've shown that if the limit is finite, then it is ##1/3##. It looks tricky to prove that the limit is finite.

You could use l'Hopital's rule several times. Although perhaps there is something better than that.
 
My second solution using L'Hopital rule twice.
##\lim_{x \to0} \left(\dfrac{1}{\sin^2 x}-\dfrac{1}{x^2}\right)=\lim_{x \to0}\dfrac{x(x-\sin x)(x+\sin x)}{x^3\sin^2x}##

##\lim_{x \to0}\left(\dfrac{x}{\sin x}\right)\cdot\lim_{x \to0}\dfrac{x+\sin x}{\sin x}\cdot\lim_{x \to0}\dfrac{1-\cos x}{3x^2}##

##=1.\lim_{x \to0}\dfrac{1+\cos x}{\cos x}\cdot\lim_{x \to0}\dfrac{1-\cos x}{3x^2}=1.2.\lim_{x \to0}\dfrac{\sin x}{6x}=\dfrac 13##
 
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The clue was to look at the Taylor series for ##\sin x##:
$$\sin x = x - \frac{x^3}{6} + \dots$$Hence:$$x - \sin x = \frac{x^3}{6} + \dots$$And:
$$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x - \sin x}{x^3} = \frac 1 6$$Which you can confirm formally using L'Hopital.
 
For sufficiently small x^2,
\begin{split}<br /> \frac{1}{\sin^2 x} - \frac 1{x^2} &amp;= (\sin x)^{-2} - \frac{1}{x^2} \\<br /> &amp;= \frac{1}{x^2} \left(1 - \frac{x^2}{6} + O(x^4)\right)^{-2} - \frac{1}{x^2} \\<br /> &amp;= \frac{1}{x^2} \left( 1 + \frac{x^2}{3} + O(x^4)\right) - \frac{1}{x^2} \\<br /> &amp;= \frac{1}{3} + O(x^2) \end{split}
 
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Another method is to set f(x) = (\sin x)/x with f(0) = 1. Then <br /> \frac{1}{\sin^2 x} - \frac{1}{x^2} = \frac{1}{x^2f^2} - \frac1{x^2} = \frac{1}{f^2} \frac{1 - f^2}{x^2} and <br /> f(x) = 1 - \frac{x^2}{6} + \dots \Rightarrow 1 - f^2(x) = \frac{x^2}{3} + \dots
 

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