- #1
tohauz
- 20
- 0
Hi,
1)is this true? If f_n(x) -> f(x) pointwise, then
{x:f(x)<=a} = union{k=1^infty}intersection{n=k^infty}{x:f_n(x)<=a}.
2)if A is measurable set, subset of reals, then is A-const set measurable?
Thanks
1)is this true? If f_n(x) -> f(x) pointwise, then
{x:f(x)<=a} = union{k=1^infty}intersection{n=k^infty}{x:f_n(x)<=a}.
2)if A is measurable set, subset of reals, then is A-const set measurable?
Thanks