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1)is this true? If f_n(x) -> f(x) pointwise, then

{x:f(x)<=a} = union{k=1^infty}intersection{n=k^infty}{x:f_n(x)<=a}.

2)if A is measurable set, subset of reals, then is A-const set measurable?

Thanks

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# Limit of measble functions

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