chrisduluk said:
yeah that was an error... if you only knew how much crap i have scattered around me right now... so is this how i
write the proof? if not, can you point out or fix the errors?
The first inequality under the horizontal line is unnecessary but correct. The second is correct too when n≥N, but you don't seem to have considered these inequalities together. You're creating a string of inequalities that look like this ε > something < something < f(N). And then you appear to be solving f(N)>ε for N. But your string of inequalities did nothing to prove that f(N)>ε.
You have convinced me that you understand the general idea now (even though you still seem to have difficulties expressing it), so I will tell you a bit more. When you hand it in, you don't have to explain how you found your N. You just have to prove that your choice of N works, i.e. that it ensures that for all integers n such that n≥N, we have
[tex]\frac{71}{99} \left(\frac{1}{100}\right)^{n+1} <\varepsilon.[/tex] You will have to prove that even if you
do explain how you found your N.
If you want to explain how to find N, then do it like this: We're looking for a natural number N such that the inequality above holds for all n≥N. If the inequality holds for all n≥N, it holds for n=N. So now you can just set n=N in the inequality and solve for N. You get a result of the form N>f(ε). This tells you that f(ε) is a lower bound on the set of acceptable choices. This obviously means that you can choose N to be any integer that's >f(ε). It's simple and convenient to choose the smallest one: N=[f(ε)]+1.
When you first solved for n in post #50, you found your f(ε) (the right-hand side of the last inequality). All you had to do after that was to choose N=[f(ε)]+1.