MHB Linear operator, its dual, proving surjectivity

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The discussion centers on proving the equivalence between the surjectivity of a continuous linear operator T between Banach spaces and the conditions that its adjoint T* is injective and the image of T* is closed. A participant references a classical theorem by Banach, which states that a bounded linear operator has a closed range if and only if its adjoint also has a closed range, suggesting this theorem is crucial for the proof. They also seek alternative resources for this theorem, as they prefer not to use Banach's original French text. Another participant recommends Yosida's "Functional Analysis" as a suitable alternative. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding the relationship between an operator and its adjoint in functional analysis.
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Let $$T: X \rightarrow Y$$ be a continuous linear operator between Banach spaces.

Prove that $T$ is surjective $$\iff$$ $$T^*$$ is injective and $$im T^*$$ is closed.

I've proven a "similar" statement, with $$imT^*$$ replaced with $$imT$$.

There I used these facts: $\overline{imT}= ^{\perp}(kerT^*)$ and $\overline{imT^*} \subset (kerT)^{\perp}$

However, I do not know how to prove the equivalence above.

Could you give me some ideas?
 
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Linux said:
Let $$T: X \rightarrow Y$$ be a continuous linear operator between Banach spaces.

Prove that $T$ is surjective $$\iff$$ $$T^*$$ is injective and $$im T^*$$ is closed.

I've proven a "similar" statement, with $$imT^*$$ replaced with $$imT$$.

There I used these facts: $\overline{imT}= ^{\perp}(kerT^*)$ and $\overline{imT^*} \subset (kerT)^{\perp}$

However, I do not know how to prove the equivalence above.

Could you give me some ideas?
A classical theorem of Banach (you'll find it somewhere in his book Opérations linéaires – it's a consequence of the open mapping theorem) says that a bounded linear operator between Banach spaces has closed range if and only if its adjoint also has closed range. I think that will be the key ingredient in your problem.
 
Thank you. Could you tell me where I can find a proof of this theorem, apart from Stefan Banach's book (which is in French)?
 
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Try Yosida's Functional Analysis.
 
Thanks. I've just found the book.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

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