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I just have one question that's been bothering me. When I reduce a higher ODE to a First ODE, and if I prove that First ODE satisfies the Lipschitz condition, does that mean that the higher ODE has a unique solution (thanks to some other theorem)?

All clarifications are appreciated,

Reli~

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# Homework Help: Lipschitz condition, more of like a clarification

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**