Lorentz contraction and Spacetime diagram

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Relevant Equations
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1613471450045.png

Hello, i can't understand how does the author found this expression relating ##x_{c}## and v. I already tried by a lot of geometrical ways, knowing that the tangent of the angle between the dotted line and the x-axis should be v, but the results are illogical. Could you help me? I am start to thinking it is a postulate ...
 
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PeroK said:
It's from the Lorentz Transformation, which I assume is the "identical calculation from before".
But he derive the Lorentz transformation after this, before it there is just the time dilatation:
1613477091707.png

The figure he cites is another figure, but at least this expression for the time i could found using the interval invariance ds². For the length contraction, i can't see how he deduced it. And i don't want to use the interval invariance again, i am trying to gain some insights using just the graphic.
 
Herculi said:
But he derive the Lorentz transformation after this, before it there is just the time dilatation:
View attachment 278102
The figure he cites is another figure, but at least this expression for the time i could found using the interval invariance ds². For the length contraction, i can't see how he deduced it. And i don't want to use the interval invariance again, i am trying to gain some insights using just the graphic.
This is difficult without seeing the full derivation of everything in your book.

What book is this? Just out of interest.
 
PeroK said:
This is difficult without seeing the full derivation of everything in your book.

What book is this? Just out of interest.
Bernard Schutz, a first course.
1613503896690.png
That's the image for the time dilatation, the curves in the graph are hyperbolae.
 
I think what you are supposed to do is note that ##\mathcal{C}## lies on an invariant hyperbola (see the curve ##\mathcal{EF}## in Figure 1.11) that satisfies ##-t^2+x^2=l^2## (section 1.7). You also note that the ##\bar{x}## axis is the line ##t=vx## and solve simultaneously for ##x## and ##t##.

I find Schutz helpful, but he does sometimes seem to skim over things which (IMO) need a bit more detail.
 
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Say angle between t axis and ##\bar{t}## axis ##\theta##, law of sines on triangle ABC says
[tex]\frac{AC}{sin(\frac{\pi}{2}+\theta)}=\frac{AB}{sin(\frac{\pi}{2}-2\theta)}[/tex]
[tex]AB=\frac{\cos 2\theta}{\cos\theta}AC=\frac{\cos^2\theta-sin^2\theta}{\cos\theta}AC[/tex]

Magic : sin and cos are replaced by sinh and cosh,
where ##\tanh \theta=v## where c=1

[tex]AB=\sqrt{1-v^2}AC[/tex]

We can do the similar to take ##\theta## pure imaginary angle.
I hope this magic is meaningful.
 
Last edited:
Do you still need help? This seems like a trivial case of length contraction with ##c## replaced by 1. The formula is saying the proper length ##l## is contracted down to ##\gamma l##.

Herculi said:
Homework Statement:: ...
Relevant Equations:: ...

View attachment 278099
Hello, i can't understand how does the author found this expression relating ##x_{c}## and v. I already tried by a lot of geometrical ways, knowing that the tangent of the angle between the dotted line and the x-axis should be v, but the results are illogical. Could you help me? I am start to thinking it is a postulate ...