- #1
andresB
- 626
- 374
The question is:
Are acceleration independent forces that obey the Helmholtz condition necessary of the Lorentz form?
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According to the "On Feynman’s proof of the Maxwell equations" (Hughes, R. J. (1992) American Journal of Physics 60, 301) the answer seems to be YES.
However section 3.7 of "Foundations of Theoretical Mechanics I: The inverse problem in Newtonian mechanics" seems to be saying that the self adjointness of a given Newton equation (Aka that it obeys the Helmholtz conditions...I think) is not sufficient to guarantee that the force is derivable from a generalized potential.
Are acceleration independent forces that obey the Helmholtz condition necessary of the Lorentz form?
==============================================================================
According to the "On Feynman’s proof of the Maxwell equations" (Hughes, R. J. (1992) American Journal of Physics 60, 301) the answer seems to be YES.
However section 3.7 of "Foundations of Theoretical Mechanics I: The inverse problem in Newtonian mechanics" seems to be saying that the self adjointness of a given Newton equation (Aka that it obeys the Helmholtz conditions...I think) is not sufficient to guarantee that the force is derivable from a generalized potential.