Maclaurin Series for an Integral

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The discussion revolves around finding the first three non-zero terms of the Maclaurin series for the integral of sin(t)/t from 0 to x. Participants clarify that the integral, while not expressible in simpler terms, is well-defined and exists. The function g(x) = ∫(0 to x) (sin t)/t dt is acknowledged as integrable, despite the lack of a straightforward representation. The sine integral is referenced as a known function that encapsulates this integral. Overall, the participants emphasize that the existing form of the integral is sufficient for solving the homework problem.
Frillth
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For my homework in my class, I'm supposed to find the first 3 non-zero terms of the Maclaurin series of f(x) = Integral sin(t)/t dt evaluated from 0 to x. I'm fairly sure that sint/t dt has no integral, so I'm lost in my search for the solution. Can you guys point me in the right direction?
 
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\sin x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}}{2n+1!}x^{2n+1}\frac{\sin x}{x} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}}{2n+1!}x^{2n}

\int_{0}^{x} \frac{\sin x}{x}\; dx = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}}{2n+1!(2n+1)}x^{2n+1}
 
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I'm fairly sure that sint/t dt has no integral
Why do you think that? You're integrating a continuous, bounded function over a finite interval -- that's like the poster child for being integrable!

The integral most surely exists. The function

g(x) := \int_0^x \frac{\sin t}{t} \, dt

is perfectly well-defined. It just might be that there isn't a "simpler" way to represent g(x). But it doesn't matter; this form is more than adequate for solving the problem at hand.
 
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I'm sorry, I didn't make myself clear. What I meant when I said that sint/t dt has no derivative is that the indefinite integral sint/t has no simple function to represent it. I looked up the integral, and wolfram just calls it sine integral.
 
You do see that this form is adequate for the problem, though, right? If not... then where do you see an obstacle?
 
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