Manipulation of an analytic function

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    Function Manipulation
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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the manipulation of the analytic function f(z) = z + e^h(z) to express it in the form f(z) = (1 - e^(z*h(z)))/z. Participants are exploring algebraic techniques and the implications of specific choices for the function h(z).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant seeks a method to transform f(z) = z + e^h(z) into a different form, indicating a struggle with the algebra involved.
  • Another participant suggests verifying the equivalence by substituting a specific value for z, such as z=1.
  • A third participant asserts that they already know the functions are equivalent but is focused on understanding the result rather than deriving it anew.
  • A later reply questions the generality of the equivalence, pointing out that if h(z) is not specified, the transformation may not hold true for all functions, providing an example where h(z) = z leads to an unexpected result.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus; there are competing views regarding the generality of the transformation and the implications of different choices for h(z).

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the dependence on the specific form of h(z) and the unresolved nature of the algebraic manipulation involved.

thayin
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Can anyone point out a way to get f(z) = z + e^h(z) into the form f(z) = (1-e^(z*h(z)))/z

I have used all of the algebra tricks I know and it seems to be going nowhere.
 
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Did you try plugging in a number say z=1 to make sure they're equivalent?
 
I know they are equivalent. I am trying to understand a result not come up with a new one.
 
Is h(z) a specific function that you haven't mentioned? Because this is not true in general. For example if h(z)=z we get
[tex]z+e^z=\frac{1-e^{z^2}}{z}[/tex]
Plugging in z=1 we get
[tex]1+e=1-e[/tex]
which seems unlikely
 

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