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Pengwuino's post resume what I'm saying.
_DJ_british_? said:Hum, yes it does. if we asssume g(vector) (the g-field) the be constant), the g-force can be expressed as m*g(vector).
Pengwuino said:It HAS to feel a greater gravitational force. If you assume they both have the same acceleration, but vastly different masses, they MUST have vastly different accelerations. Since we know more massive and less massive objects fall with the same acceleration, they must feel different forces.
JeepinBob said:Thanks guys. the world makes sense once again and I feel just a little bit smarter.
JeepinBob said:So if I understand correctly, the force of pulling on the heavier object would be greater but the added mass counters the force. that is the same force on a heavier object would cause less acceleration.
The magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by that ball bearing on the Earth is exactly equal to that exerted by the Earth on the ball bearing. The magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by the Earth on the Sun is exactly equal to that exerted by the Sun on the Earth.ernestpworrel said:But the lump of star matter exerts a greater gravitational force on the Earth than the ball bearing, so the total gravitational force is greater.
Yes, it does.That still doesn't mean it feels a greater force though.
That is nonsense.It's the equivalent of a greater force so the vector fields are different, but the gravitational force of the Earth is constant so there's no real difference in forces.
You have not been helping.ernestpworrel said:Glad I could help.
Yes, that's what I thought. So am I also correct in assuming that this is wrong?DH said:The magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by that ball bearing on the Earth is exactly equal to that exerted by the Earth on the ball bearing.
What is F_big and F_small? The force is the same for both Earth and the object (just in opposite directions). It's the accelerations that are different (and in opposite directions). That's because the "a" in F=ma is derived from GM/r2.mikelepore said:The ratio (F_big / m_big) is equal to the ratio (F_small / m_small). Both are the same value of "a".
ernestpworrel said:But the lump of star matter exerts a greater gravitational force on the Earth than the ball bearing, so the total gravitational force is greater. That still doesn't mean it feels a greater force though. It's the equivalent of a greater force so the vector fields are different, but the gravitational force of the Earth is constant so there's no real difference in forces.
What is "communicated to" and "delivered by"? There is only one force in F = GMm/r2. It acts on both Earth and the object, just in opposite directions. The force acting between the Earth and the larger object is greater than the force acting between the Earth and the smaller object. But the accelerations of the large object and the small object are the same because the increased force on the larger object is canceled by it's equally larger inertial mass. But you are correct that the larger object will have greater momentum.ernestpworrel said:The magnitude of the force that is communicated to each object is the same. The magnitude of the force delivered by the larger, more massive object is greater, but that means that it will have more momentum on impact and do more damage.
Yes, I am talking to you. You are posting utter nonsense and in doing so you are not helping. In fact, you are hurting the discussion. Post #46, just to pick one of your egregious posts, is chock-full of nonsense.ernestpworrel said:Were you speaking to me?
Nonsense. The force imparted on objects in freefall is proportional to their gravitational mass, and gravitational mass is equal to inertial mass.ernestpworrel said:All objects in freefall near the Earth's surface can be treated as having equal masses when considering only the force imparted to them.
Correct. One out of six is not a very good mark, however.They are all accelerated at the same rate. Whether an object's rest mass is 5 kg or 5000 kg, it's going to accelerate toward Earth at the same rate as any other object (ignoring air resistance).
Nonsense. You are contradicting Newton's law of gravitation here.The magnitude of the force that is communicated to each object is the same.
Nonsense. You are once again contradicting Newton's law of gravitation.It feels the same force as the "lighter" object because the force causing acceleration is the same, the mass of the earth.
Nonsense. F=ma has nothing to do (directly) with work. It has everything to do with force, mass, and acceleration. The nonsense you are posting contradicts the following:F=ma describes the amount of work that an object with momentum will do on an object it collides with.
Yes, you are.ernestpworrel said:I'm not contradicting Newton's third law.
Now you are contradicting yourself. In post #46 you explicitly said "They are all accelerated at the same rate." Moreover you are contradicting over 400 years worth of experimental observations.The rate to which an object is accelerated varies directly with the mass of the object.
D H said:The force imparted on objects in freefall is proportional to their gravitational mass, and gravitational mass is equal to inertial mass.
D H said:F=ma has nothing to do (directly) with work. It has everything to do with force, mass, and acceleration.
D H said:Suppose two objects with measurably distinct inertial masses are observed to undergo the same acceleration. The force on those two objects *must* be different if Newton's second law has any validity.
D H said:Different masses yield different forces. Now apply Newton's second law to determine the accelerations of these different masses: a1=F1/m1=GM/r2 and a2=F2/m2=GM/r2. Even though the forces acting on the two objects are different, the two objects will undergo the same acceleration. This assumes of course that gravitational mass (the mass quantities in Newton's law of gravitation) and inertial mass (the m in F=ma) are one and the same.
D H said:Now you are contradicting yourself. In post #46 you explicitly said "They are all accelerated at the same rate." Moreover you are contradicting over 400 years worth of experimental observations.
Questions answered in order:ernestpworrel said:You mean the force of the Earth's gravitational acceleration? Isn't it a constant force? Doesn't it accelerate all objects equally?
No.Doesn't f=ma describe the momentum transferred in a collision?
Ernest, Newton's second law of motion, F=ma, is extremely basic physics. That you do not know the meaning of this is very telling. Newton's law of gravitation, F=Gm1m2/r2, is also extremely basic physics. The gravitational force varies with mass and distance. That you are arguing this is also very telling.ernestpworrel said:If F=ma does not describe the momentum transferred from one object to another in a collision then what does it describe? Surely it does not describe the gravitational force exerted by an object onto another object since it does not vary with distance.
D H said:Ernest, Newton's second law of motion, F=ma, is extremely basic physics. That you do not know the meaning of this is very telling. Newton's law of gravitation, F=Gm1m2/r2, is also extremely basic physics. The gravitational force varies with mass and distance. That you are arguing this is also very telling.
The issue of collision dynamics has nothing to do with the topic of this thread, Ernest. This is a hijack on your part.ernestpworrel said:[Off-topic discussion of collisions]
This is nonsense.As far as the other equation is concerned, I understand that as the equation for gravitational attraction between two bodies. This equation absolutely does not mean that either body will feel that force though. It describes how each body will behave under the influence of the gravity of the other. I don't see how I'm wrong in conveying these obviously correct ideas on this forum.
D H said:The issue of collision dynamics has nothing to do with the topic of this thread, Ernest. This is a hijack on your part.
This is nonsense.
Addendum
What exactly do you mean by the word "feel" here, Ernest?