1effect said:
True, E_1 E_2 is also frame-variant, so how do you prove that E_1 E_2 - \textbf{p}_1 \cdot \textbf{p}_2 is invariant?
Well, first of all, do you accept that the 4-momentum \left( E/c, \textbf{p} \right) is a genuine 4-vector, i.e. it obeys the Lorentz transform, e.g. simplified to one dimension of space
E' = \gamma_u \left(E - u p \right) ...(1)
p' = \gamma_u \left(p - \frac{u E}{c^2} \right)...(2) ?
If you don't know why 4-momentum is a 4-vector, it can also be defined as
\left(mc \frac{dt}{d\tau}, m \frac{d\textbf{x}}{d\tau} \right)
where
m is invariant mass and \tau is the proper time of the particle being measured (also an invariant).
(Note that \frac{dt}{d\tau} = \gamma_v, and \frac{d\textbf{x}}{d\tau} = \frac{d\textbf{x}}{dt} \frac{dt}{d\tau} = \gamma_v \textbf{v}.)
So just apply the operator m \frac{d}{d\tau} to the standard time-space Lorentz transform to get the energy-momentum Lorentz transform (1) and (2).
Now just substitute (1) and (2) into E_1' E_2' - p_1' p_2' c^4 and see what you get.
Your "different approach" to finding the energy & momentum ought to work too, and, yes, it is "just the good ol' centre of mass and its velocity" as
tiny-tim says (but expressed in a different way to the Wikipedia "Invariant mass" article -- as is often the case, there's more than one way to define a concept). I haven't done the calculation myself but I feel confident both are equivalent.
And the reason I used ||\textbf{p}|| instead of \textbf{p} in the relevant formula is because that's how you calculate the norm of a 4-vector -- it's the metric "ds" but applied to the 4-momentum instead of to (
cdt,
dx). The Wikipedia "Invariant mass" article was a bit lax about including ||.|| norm symbols but I've corrected that now.
The Wikipedia article on "Center of mass frame" only calculates the Newtonian version. However the description in words in the first two paragraphs is still valid in the relativistic case.