Master Holder's Inequality with Expertly Guided Solutions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around Holder's inequality, specifically focusing on a problem involving sequences in the spaces \( l_p \) and \( l_q \). Participants are examining the conditions under which the series \( S(a,b) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n b_n \) converges absolutely and is bounded above by certain expressions involving sums of powers of the sequences.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definition of \( l_p \) spaces and the implications of the conditions for convergence. Questions arise regarding the absolute convergence of the series and the necessity of considering finite sums in the context of Holder's inequality.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and clarifications. Some guidance has been offered regarding the relationship between finite and infinite sums in the context of Holder's inequality. However, there is no explicit consensus on the treatment of absolute convergence.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the definitions and properties of \( l_p \) spaces, as well as the implications of the conditions set forth in the problem. There is mention of potential differences in indexing the series, which may affect interpretations.

Cairo
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I'm currently reading a book and stuck on an exercise with no solutions.

A proof would be great.
 

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Cairo said:
I'm currently reading a book and stuck on an exercise with no solutions.

A proof would be great.

I have a bit of an interest in Holders inequality, so I'm going to make the effort to convert your word docoument into something readable for the forums. In general, posting a word document is not adequate for readers. I have also converted an "a" to a "b" in the last formula.

The problem is:

Let [itex]1 < p < \infty[/itex] and 1/p + 1/q = 1

Show that if [itex]a \in l_p[/itex] and [itex]b \in l_q[/itex] then the series
[tex]S(a,b) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n b_n[/tex]
converges absolutely, and is bounded above by
[tex]\left( \sum_{n=1}^\infty\left| a_n \right|^p \right)^{1/p}<br /> \left( \sum_{n=1}^\infty\left| b_n \right|^q \right)^{1/q}[/tex]

My question. What does lp mean?
 
Lp = {a = a(n) | Sigma |a(n)|^p < infinity}.

Thanks in advance.
 
Cairo said:
Lp = {a = a(n) | Sigma |a(n)|^p < infinity}.

Thanks in advance.

Define
[tex]\begin{align*}<br /> X & = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \left| a_n \right| ^p \\<br /> Y & = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \left| b_n \right| ^q \\<br /> x_n & = | a_n | / X^{1/p} \\<br /> y_n & = | b_n | / Y^{1/q} \\<br /> \intertext{Hence}<br /> \sum_{n=0}^\infty x_n^p & = \frac{\sum_{n=0}^\infty \left| a_n \right|^p}{X} & = 1 \\<br /> \sum_{n=0}^\infty y_n^q & = \frac{\sum_{n=0}^\infty \left| b_n \right|^q}{Y} & = 1<br /> \end{align*}[/tex]​

I will also use Young's inequality. Given 1/p + 1/q = 1, for p,q > 0, a,b >= 0, we have
[tex]ab \leq \frac{a^p}{p} + \frac{b^q}{q}[/tex]​

Hence
[tex]\begin{align*}<br /> \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n b_n & \leq X^{1/p}Y^{1/q} \sum_{n=0}^\infty x_n y_n \\<br /> & \leq X^{1/p}Y^{1/q} \sum_{n=0}^\infty \left( \frac{x_n^p}{p} + \frac{y_n^q}{q} \right) \\<br /> & \leq \frac{X^{1/p}Y^{1/q}}{p} \sum_{n=0}^\infty x_n^p + \frac{X^{1/p}Y^{1/q}}{q} \sum_{n=0}^\infty y_n^q \\<br /> & = \frac{X^{1/p}Y^{1/q}}{p} + \frac{X^{1/p}Y^{1/q}}{q} \\<br /> & = X^{1/p}Y^{1/q} \left( \frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q} \right) \\<br /> & = X^{1/p}Y^{1/q}<br /> \end{align*}[/tex]​
as required.

Felicitations -- sylas
 
Thanks Sylas. I can see from the proof that the series is bounded above. But where does the absolute convergence come in?

Would you have to use the MCT?

Also, do I not need to consider finite sums for Holder's Inequality?
 
Last edited:
Cairo said:
Thanks Sylas. I can see from the proof that the series is bounded above. But where does the absolute convergence come in?

I am not sure what you mean. The given condition
[tex]\sum_{n=0}^\infty |a_n|^p < \infty[/tex]​
is simply saying that the sum is finite. So it has a finite value, and I give it a name, X.

Also, do I not need to consider finite sums for Holder's Inequality?

There are many forms of Holder's inequality. I gave the proof for the case you presented. A finite sum follows directly as a special case of the infinite sum, where all but an infinite number of the terms are zero.

And by the way, I see you started all series at n=1, whereas I started at n=0. There's no difference; it is still just an infinite series.

Cheers -- sylas
 
Thanks.
 

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