[math analysis] sup f< sup g=>∫f^n<∫g^n

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around an inequality involving integrals and supremum functions, specifically comparing the integral of \( f^n \) and \( g^n \) under the condition that \( \sup f < \sup g \). Participants are exploring the implications of this relationship and how to establish the inequality rigorously.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the relationship between the supremum of functions and their integrals, questioning how to demonstrate that \( (\sup f)^n < \int_0^1 g^n \). There is mention of using neighborhoods to establish bounds and the need to prove the existence of an \( n \) satisfying certain conditions.

Discussion Status

Some participants have made attempts to clarify their understanding of the problem and have shared their reasoning. There is a request for further hints regarding linking the results to an exponential form, indicating ongoing exploration of the topic. Multiple interpretations of the problem are being considered, but no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of homework rules, which may limit the information they can share or the methods they can use. There is an acknowledgment of previous help received, suggesting a collaborative effort to deepen understanding.

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We know that

\int_0^1{f^n}\leq (\sup f)^n.

So we need to show that

(\sup f)^n\leq \int_0^1{g^n}

Since sup(f)<sup(g), there exists a neighbourhood ]a,b[ such that

\forall x\in ]a,b[:~\sup(f)&lt;g(x)

Now we can use

\int_0^1{g_n}\geq \int_a^b{g_n}\geq (b-a)\inf_{x\in ]a,b[}{g^n(x)}.

so you must prove now that there exists an n such that

(\sup f)^n&lt;(b-a)\inf_{x\in ]a,b[}{g^n(x)}
 
micromass said:
We know that

\int_0^1{f^n}\leq (\sup f)^n.

So we need to show that

(\sup f)^n\leq \int_0^1{g^n}

Since sup(f)<sup(g), there exists a neighbourhood ]a,b[ such that

\forall x\in ]a,b[:~\sup(f)&lt;g(x)

Now we can use

\int_0^1{g_n}\geq \int_a^b{g_n}\geq (b-a)\inf_{x\in ]a,b[}{g^n(x)}.

so you must prove now that there exists an n such that

(\sup f)^n&lt;(b-a)\inf_{x\in ]a,b[}{g^n(x)}
Hi Micromass. Thank you for your help with https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=451462
I now know how to solve the first question, but I still do not know know to link them with e^{mn+c}. I tried the mean value theorem of integral without success. Could you please give me another hint? Thank you!
 
mathdunce said:
Hi Micromass. Thank you for your help with https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=451462
I now know how to solve the first question, but I still do not know know to link them with e^{mn+c}. I tried the mean value theorem of integral without success. Could you please give me another hint? Thank you!

Oh, I think I know how to do the second one, too. Thanks. I have not written it down formally yet.
 

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