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- Thread starter GENIERE
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jcsd

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It is highly debatebale whether or not the Planck length is the smallest possible divison esp. when referring to wavelenghths. I mentioned this above but I'll now illustrate this exactly:

The relativistic Doppler shift is given by the following:

z = Δλ/λ = [(1 + v/c)/(1 - v/c)]

Where λ is the original wavelength, Δλ is the change in wavelength due to the Doppler effect, v is the relative velocity of the source and the observer and c is the speed of light in a vacuum.

This can be rearranged into the following:

λ' = (z + 1)λ

Where λ' is the observed wavelength (λ + Δλ ) and (z + 1) = [(1 + v/c)/(1 - v/c)]

Now consider two beams of light with wavelengths (for an observer sationery to the source) Λ

λ

λ

For the observer sationery to the source the difference between the wavelengths of the beams will be:

dλ = λ

For the observer moving with velocity, v, relative to the source the difference between the two wavelengths will be:

dλ' = λ

We can then relate these two differences:

dλ' = (z+1)dλ

This tells us that the difference between the wavelengths of two beams of lights will be different for different reference frames, therefore in one refernce frame a difference between two wavelengths may be less than or equal to the Planck length yet in another it may be greater.

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Loren Booda

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Loren- Thanks for the link. I hope I can understand it,

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jcsd

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Loren Booda

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reilly

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Regards,

Reilly Atkinson

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