- #1
zezima1
- 123
- 0
Okay, I am not sure if this is the right subforum, but here goes:
An einstein solid is a solid composed of N quantum harmonic oscillators, which can store evenly spaced energy units q.
Now suppose we have an einstein solid of N oscillators with q energy units, where q>>N. My book wants to derive an expression for the multiplicity of this solid, but I can't quite follow the approximations leading to the final expression:
We have in general that that the multiplicity, Ω, of an einstein solid is given by the binomial:
Ω = C(q+N-1,q) , where C() is the binomial coefficient. I won't verify this expression, because it is the approximations of it that bother me:
In general we have from the definition of the binomial coefficient:
Ω = C(q+N-1,q) = (q+N-1)!/((N-1)!*q!)
My book approximates this to:
Ω = (q+N)!/(q!*N!)
with the argument that: "The ratio of N! to (N-1)! is only a large factor (N).
I don't see what this has to do with the approximation. The multiplicity above gets far bigger with the approximation because it all depends on q.
For instance, say q=100 and N=2. Then you get:
Ωreal = 101!/100! = 101
Ωapprox = 102!/2! ≈ 50*Ωreal
or i general for N=2:
Ωapprox = q/2 * Ωapprox
So in general how is this approximation valid? Am I plugging the numbers in the wrong way?
An einstein solid is a solid composed of N quantum harmonic oscillators, which can store evenly spaced energy units q.
Now suppose we have an einstein solid of N oscillators with q energy units, where q>>N. My book wants to derive an expression for the multiplicity of this solid, but I can't quite follow the approximations leading to the final expression:
We have in general that that the multiplicity, Ω, of an einstein solid is given by the binomial:
Ω = C(q+N-1,q) , where C() is the binomial coefficient. I won't verify this expression, because it is the approximations of it that bother me:
In general we have from the definition of the binomial coefficient:
Ω = C(q+N-1,q) = (q+N-1)!/((N-1)!*q!)
My book approximates this to:
Ω = (q+N)!/(q!*N!)
with the argument that: "The ratio of N! to (N-1)! is only a large factor (N).
I don't see what this has to do with the approximation. The multiplicity above gets far bigger with the approximation because it all depends on q.
For instance, say q=100 and N=2. Then you get:
Ωreal = 101!/100! = 101
Ωapprox = 102!/2! ≈ 50*Ωreal
or i general for N=2:
Ωapprox = q/2 * Ωapprox
So in general how is this approximation valid? Am I plugging the numbers in the wrong way?