- #1
Bardagath
- 10
- 0
Hello,
I made a mistake in the title of this thread and this question is on general logarithms;
loga(aloga(x)) = loga(x) ==> aloga(x) = x
Can someone enlighten me on why loga(aloga(x)) simplifies to loga(x)? Can someone prove why this is true? Futhermore, why does this imply that aloga(x) = x? I am having trouble getting my head around this
Bardagath
I made a mistake in the title of this thread and this question is on general logarithms;
loga(aloga(x)) = loga(x) ==> aloga(x) = x
Can someone enlighten me on why loga(aloga(x)) simplifies to loga(x)? Can someone prove why this is true? Futhermore, why does this imply that aloga(x) = x? I am having trouble getting my head around this
Bardagath