MissP.25_5
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That term itself isn't zero. But the area under it, taken over the complete cycle 0→2 Pi contributes nothing to the integral that you are about to evaluate. So the author is just looking ahead and seeing that he can save himself a bit of work here, and not bothering to process a term that is going to end up as zero anyway.MissP.25_5 said:Hello.
This is part of a solution but I don't understand the underlined part. Why is it equals to 0?