Need help with deciphering calculus 2 problem

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the equality of two integrals involving a continuous function f using substitution. The integral $$\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\sin x)\,dx$$ is shown to equal $$\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\cos x)\,dx$$ by recognizing that the variable of integration is a dummy variable. Participants clarify that substituting the variable does not affect the value of the integral, allowing the transformation from $$\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\cos u)\,du$$ to $$\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\cos x)\,dx$$ without loss of generality.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of definite integrals
  • Familiarity with substitution in calculus
  • Knowledge of properties of continuous functions
  • Basic understanding of dummy variables in integration
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of definite integrals in calculus
  • Learn about substitution techniques in integral calculus
  • Explore the implications of dummy variables in mathematical expressions
  • Review examples of integrals involving trigonometric functions
USEFUL FOR

Students studying calculus, particularly those tackling integral calculus problems, educators teaching calculus concepts, and anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of substitution methods in integration.

Al3x L3g3nd
Messages
14
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement



Use substitution to show that for any continuous function f,
$$\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\sin x)\,dx = \int_0^{\pi/2} f(\cos x)\,dx.$$

Homework Equations


$$\cos(\pi/2-x)=\sin x$$

The Attempt at a Solution



My confusion is that f is inside the integral, and I have no idea if it would change anything.

When I do the substitution normally, I get ##\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\cos u)\,du##, but that doesn't help because it is in terms of u and not x.

Can someone help me understand this?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
Shoot. I don't know how the formatting works on this site. The squigly line is an integrand and they all go from 0 to pi/2.
 
Last edited:
Al3x L3g3nd said:
When I do the substitution normally, I get ##\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\cos u)\,du##, but that doesn't help because it is in terms of u and not x.
I don't think it matters. In the definite integrals of f(x) dx, from x = a to x = b, x is a dummy variable, since it could be replaced everywhere by any other letter and the meaning would be unchanged. So IIRC you can just change the letters from
[tex]\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\cos u)\,du[/tex]
to
[tex]\int_0^{\pi/2} f(\cos x)\,dx[/tex]
and you're done.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
3
Views
2K