Neutron Temp: Does It Apply to Subatomic Particles?

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    Neutron Temperature
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SUMMARY

Temperature does apply to subatomic particles, including neutrons, as it is defined by the average kinetic energy of particles. For non-relativistic free neutrons, the relationship is described by the equation E = (3/2)kBT, where E is kinetic energy and T is temperature. Neutron scattering facilities classify neutrons as cold, thermal, or hot, directly referencing their temperatures during experiments. The discussion clarifies misconceptions about temperature in relation to subatomic particles and emphasizes that energy absorption does not equate to a straightforward increase in temperature.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of kinetic energy and its relation to temperature
  • Familiarity with the concept of absolute zero
  • Basic knowledge of neutron behavior in nuclear physics
  • Awareness of neutron scattering techniques and classifications
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  • Research the equation E = (3/2)kBT and its implications in particle physics
  • Explore neutron scattering techniques and their applications in condensed matter physics
  • Study the behavior of neutrons in nuclear reactors and their thermal properties
  • Investigate the concept of temperature in quantum mechanics and its differences from classical definitions
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Physicists, nuclear engineers, and students of particle physics seeking to deepen their understanding of temperature in relation to subatomic particles, particularly neutrons.

coolul007
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Does temperature apply to subatomic particles, in particular the neutron? The question is prompted by the definition of absolute zero, being specific to atomic movement.
 
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coolul007 said:
Does temperature apply to subatomic particles, in particular the neutron?
I am not sure if a get question properly but, in general, particles temperature can be defined with its kinetic energy
slow neutrons are colder, hot neutrons are faster..

as analogue of classical temperature, where $$ T \sim <E_k> $$
 
coolul007 said:
Does temperature apply to subatomic particles, in particular the neutron? The question is prompted by the definition of absolute zero, being specific to atomic movement.

I don't think you understand the definition of temperature. It is a measure of the average kinetic energy of an ensemble of ANY particles, neutrons included.

If you do a search, you can even find, especially in a solid state text or webpage, the temperature of the "electron gas" in a conductor at room temperature.

Zz.
 
Yes neutrons have a temperature. For non-relativistic free neutrons (eg: moderated neutrons radiating from a nuclear reactor) the equations are trivial ##E = \frac{3}{2}k_{B}T## where ##E## is the kinetic energy ##E = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}##. Indeed, at neutron scattering facilities dedicated to using neutrons as a probe of condensed matter, the different instruments are typically classified as cold, thermal, or hot. Which is a direct reference to the neutron temperatures used in the scattering experiments.
 
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I was thinking of temperature in the classic sense of atom versus subatomic particle. I have been lied to about atoms my whole life, so if I am way off base here I apologize. My understanding is the atoms increase "temperature" by absorbing photons. Therefore a rock that does not have kinetic energy can have "stored heat". Therefore, my thoughts went to particles that don't seem to absorb a photon and are at "rest" in the nucleus of an atom. That is what spurred my question.
 
coolul007 said:
I have been lied to
That's a bit harsh. I probably got the same stories but don't share the feeling; learning is a gradual process that has to start somewhere. And what you can absorb in one step is limited (as well as what you can absorb in a whole lifetime :cry: :confused: ).
 
coolul007 said:
My understanding is the atoms increase "temperature" by absorbing photons.
I wouldn't say that is a meaningful statement. It's trying to extend a macroscopic, statistical idea into the behaviour of a single entity. Absorbing Energy doesn't imply a pro-rata increase in temperature, even in a real gas because input energy can result in an increase in Potential Energy as well as KE. Van der Vaal forces beween gas molecules stop them behaving ideally.
I would say that you haven't been "lied to" as much as taken an inappropriate message from a not-to-good presentation of the situation.
 
BvU said:
That's a bit harsh. I probably got the same stories but don't share the feeling; learning is a gradual process that has to start somewhere. And what you can absorb in one step is limited (as well as what you can absorb in a whole lifetime :cry: :confused: ).
I didn't mean to be harsh, the implication is that, as understanding increases the previous teachings are invalidated. I'm 72 1/2 years old, so you can imagine the world, as well as the subatomic world has changed for me. I ask this question in relation to absolute zero, being the lack of "static" energy in an atom. I was just pondering if there is a subatomic equivalence. No condemnation of physicists on my part. Thank you for your replies.
 
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coolul007 said:
I didn't mean to be harsh, the implication is that, as understanding increases the previous teachings are invalidated. I'm 72 1/2 years old, so you can imagine the world, as well as the subatomic world has changed for me. I ask this question in relation to absolute zero, being the lack of "static" energy in an atom. I was just pondering if there is a subatomic equivalence. No condemnation of physicists on my part. Thank you for your replies.
I think you're asking if neutrons have "internal" temperature as well as "external" temperature that SpinFlop described. Atoms can receive energy which pushes electrons into "higher orbits". I don't believe there is an equivalent in neutrons.
 

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