The following experiment claims that it has demonstrated the wave-function collapse: http://www.nature.com/ncomms/2015/150324/ncomms7665/full/ncomms7665.html I would have no problem if they have claimed that, the experiment demonstrated the "non-local" (or: precisely quantum) steering effect. In my humble opinion, there is no logic to justify that "quantum steering effect is equivalent to the wave-function collapse". Here the wave-function collapse is defined in the strict Von-Neumann's postulate form. Do I miss something important here? I posted this question on the physics SE for discussion and got no response. So please let me know your input - thank you so much!