cuak2000
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Hey, everyone. I'm trying to prove the following:
f_n and f_n are real-valued function in \Omega
\{\omega: f_n(\omega) \nrightarrow f(\omega) \} = \\<br /> \bigcup^{\infty}_{k=1} \bigcap^{\infty}_{N=1} \bigcup^{\infty}_{n=1} <br /> \{ \omega : | f_n(\omega) - f(\omega) | \geq 1/k \}<br /> <br /> <br />
I am convinced by the proof I've made up, but it isn't formal, so I would appreciate if you could help me give it more formality.
Let's call the left side of the equality L and the right side R.
L can be written:
\exists k \in \mathbb{N} \quad \forall N \quad \exists n \geq N \quad | f_n(\omega) \nrightarrow f(\omega) | \geq 1/k<br />
On the other hand, the last part of R is
\bigcap^{\infty}_{N=1} \bigcup^{\infty}_{n=1} <br /> \{ \omega : | f_n(\omega) - f(\omega) | \geq 1/k \}
which basically takes all the \omega that \forall N have
at least one n \geq N that makes the absolute difference bigger than 1/k
If you take the union for all k, then you have the definition for being in L.
Thanks in advance,
cd
f_n and f_n are real-valued function in \Omega
\{\omega: f_n(\omega) \nrightarrow f(\omega) \} = \\<br /> \bigcup^{\infty}_{k=1} \bigcap^{\infty}_{N=1} \bigcup^{\infty}_{n=1} <br /> \{ \omega : | f_n(\omega) - f(\omega) | \geq 1/k \}<br /> <br /> <br />
I am convinced by the proof I've made up, but it isn't formal, so I would appreciate if you could help me give it more formality.
Let's call the left side of the equality L and the right side R.
L can be written:
\exists k \in \mathbb{N} \quad \forall N \quad \exists n \geq N \quad | f_n(\omega) \nrightarrow f(\omega) | \geq 1/k<br />
On the other hand, the last part of R is
\bigcap^{\infty}_{N=1} \bigcup^{\infty}_{n=1} <br /> \{ \omega : | f_n(\omega) - f(\omega) | \geq 1/k \}
which basically takes all the \omega that \forall N have
at least one n \geq N that makes the absolute difference bigger than 1/k
If you take the union for all k, then you have the definition for being in L.
Thanks in advance,
cd
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