Normalizing wavefunction of (x^2)e^(-x^2)?

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In summary, the conversation discusses how to integrate a function involving the Gaussian function, e^{-x^2}. The participants share different approaches, such as using a generating functional and changing from Cartesian to polar coordinates, to evaluate the integral. They also discuss the derivative of the integral, which leads to the value of the original Gaussian integral.
  • #1
lonewolf219
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Homework Statement



ψ(x,t)=Axe[itex]^{-cx^2}[/itex]e[itex]^{-iωt}[/itex]

Homework Equations



1=∫ψ*ψdx

The Attempt at a Solution



1=[itex]\int[/itex]A[itex]^{2}[/itex]x[itex]^{2}[/itex]e[itex]^{-2cx^2}[/itex]

I think I multiplied ψ*ψ correctly... I'm surprised a little that there is an x^2 with this problem. We have not discussed these integrals in class. I watched a video on how to integrate e[itex]^{-x^2}[/itex], but don't know what to do with the product x^2 and e^(-2cx^2)
 
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  • #2
Did you take statistical mechanics ? You learn about integrating gaussians there. If not, then at least a course in mathematical methods of physics should have explained you this.

Anyways, think I(c) = int_R exp(-cx2) dx. Compute it then differentiate the result wrt c. (c is a parameter).
 
  • #3
I'll give you a hint.
I presume you know that: [itex]\int_{- \infty}^{+\infty} e^{-\lambda x^2}dx = \sqrt{\pi/ \lambda}[/itex]. Consider the function:
[tex]I(\lambda )=\int_{- \infty}^{+\infty}e^{-\lambda x^2}dx[/tex]
Then:
[tex]\frac{d}{d\lambda }I(\lambda )=-\int_{- \infty}^{+\infty}x^2e^{-\lambda x^2}dx[/tex]
 
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  • #4
You could also integrate by parts.
 
  • #5
Thanks for the help, guys! Didn't take statistical mechanics, unfortunately...

Does this mean that the derivative of [itex]\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{\lambda}}[/itex] is my answer?
 
  • #6
vela is correct, but kostas230's trick is one of the most beautiful in mathematics and one of the most important in physics. The technique is referred to as using a "generating functional."
 
  • #7
I don't know if you ever had to evaluate the Gaussian integral, but here's an elegant way to do it. Consider the integral:

[tex]I= \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-(x^2+y^2)}dxdy[/tex]

By changing from cartesian coordinates to polar coordinates, the integral above becomes:
[tex]I= \int_{0}^{+\infty}\int_{0}^{2\pi}re^{-r^2}drd\theta[/tex]

I trust that you are able to evaluate the integral. Can you find the gaussian integral [itex]I'=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-x^2}dx[/itex] using the above results? ;)
 
  • #8
Thanks kostas230, appreciate your help:smile:... The result should be in the form of a Hermite polynomial, is that correct? I think the derivative of re[itex]^{-r^2}[/itex] is

e[itex]^{-r^2}[/itex](1-2r[itex]^{2}[/itex])

Not quite sure what to do next
 
  • #9
No, I said: compute the integral, not find the derivative of the integrated function
 
  • #10
If you are asking me to find the integral of re[itex]^{-r^2}[/itex]drd[itex]\theta[/itex] from 0[itex]\leq[/itex]r[itex]\leq[/itex][itex]\infty[/itex] and 0[itex]\leq\theta[/itex][itex]\leq[/itex]2[itex]\pi[/itex] I believe it is [itex]\pi[/itex]. And then the integral with a coefficient λ in the power would be [itex]\frac{\pi}{\lambda}[/itex]
 
  • #11
That is right, and it allows you to find the value of the original Gaussian integral, if you find the relation between that and the formula kostas230 used.
 
  • #12
Thank you, mfb.

So is it that I[itex]^{2}[/itex]= [itex]\frac{\pi}{\lambda}[/itex]

So the derivative of [itex]\frac{\pi}{\lambda}[/itex] is -[itex]\frac{\pi}{\lambda^2}[/itex]?

Since the derivative would be 2I for I[itex]^{2}[/itex], should I divide -[itex]\frac{\pi}{\lambda^2}[/itex] by 2, so that I=-[itex]\frac{\pi}{2\lambda^2}[/itex] ?

Although A is a positive value.. would the negative sign in front of kostas' integral cancel this one, so that I =[itex]\frac{\pi}{2\lambda^2}[/itex] ?
 
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  • #13
lonewolf219 said:
So the derivative of [itex]\frac{\pi}{\lambda}[/itex] is -[itex]\frac{\pi}{\lambda^2}[/itex]?
I think you are mixing two different approaches here.
 
  • #14
My first post was on an algorithmic process in finding integrals of the form: [itex]I_n=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}x^n e^{-\lambda x^2}dx[/itex] presuming that you know the integral [itex]I_0=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-\lambda x^2}dx=\sqrt{\pi}[/itex]. My other posts where to show you a way to compute the integral [itex]\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}e^{-\lambda x^2}dx=\sqrt{\pi}[/itex].
 

1. What is the purpose of normalizing the wavefunction of (x^2)e^(-x^2)?

The purpose of normalizing a wavefunction is to ensure that the total probability of finding the particle in any location is equal to 1. This allows for accurate calculations and predictions of the particle's behavior.

2. How is the normalization constant calculated for (x^2)e^(-x^2)?

The normalization constant is calculated by taking the square root of the integral of the squared wavefunction over all space. In this case, it would involve solving the integral of (x^2)e^(-x^2) from 0 to infinity.

3. What is the physical interpretation of the normalized wavefunction for (x^2)e^(-x^2)?

The normalized wavefunction represents the probability density of finding the particle at any given location. In other words, it shows the likelihood of finding the particle in a specific position.

4. How does normalizing the wavefunction affect the shape of (x^2)e^(-x^2)?

Normalizing the wavefunction does not change the shape of (x^2)e^(-x^2) itself, as it only affects the overall amplitude. However, it may change the shape of the probability density plot, which would show a narrower and taller peak compared to the unnormalized wavefunction.

5. Is it always necessary to normalize a wavefunction?

In most cases, it is necessary to normalize a wavefunction in order to accurately describe the behavior of a particle. However, there are some exceptions, such as when dealing with infinite potentials or when the wavefunction is already normalized by its nature.

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