AxiomOfChoice
- 531
- 1
Suppose I have B: X\to Y and A: Y\to Z, where X,Y,Z are Banach spaces and B\in \mathcal L(X,Y) and A\in \mathcal L(Y,Z); that is, both of these operators are bounded. Does it follow that AB \in \mathcal L(X,Z) and
<br /> \| AB \|_{\mathcal L(X,Z)} \leq \|A\|_{\mathcal L(Y,Z)} \|B\|_{\mathcal L(X,Y)}<br />
It seems like this should be the case, but any time I try to prove a functional analytic result like this, I always get mired in uncertainty about the details...
<br /> \| AB \|_{\mathcal L(X,Z)} \leq \|A\|_{\mathcal L(Y,Z)} \|B\|_{\mathcal L(X,Y)}<br />
It seems like this should be the case, but any time I try to prove a functional analytic result like this, I always get mired in uncertainty about the details...