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Say I have a point on a unit sphere, given by the spherical coordinate $(r=1, \theta, \phi)$. Is this point equivalent to the point that one can obtain by $(x,y,z)=(1,0,0)$ around the $y$-axis by an angle $\pi/2-\theta$ and around the $z$-axis by the angle $\phi$?

I'm not sure this is the case, since the spherical coordinate $\phi$ is merely a projection, but I would like to hear your opinion.

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# Obtaining spherical coordinates by rotations

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