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∫ of (x^2) from 0 to 2 proof w/o using fundamental therom, but w/ Riemann Sums

  1. Aug 15, 2012 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

    [tex] \int_0^2 x^2 \, dx [/tex] using true definition involving Riemann Sums (w/o fundamental theorem).

    2. Relevant equations

    I don't know what the relevant equations may be, perhaps some type of lim[itex]\sum f(x)(x_{j}-x_{j-1}[/itex])

    3. The attempt at a solution

    No attempt. Just seeking the long proof for it. Would be grateful for any and all clues to where I could find the long solution to this.
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 15, 2012 #2


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    Look at example 2 here for a similar, but different, example:

    http://faculty.eicc.edu/bwood/math150supnotes/supplemental21.html [Broken]
    Last edited by a moderator: May 6, 2017
  4. Aug 15, 2012 #3
    ah thanks, LC, I put that straight to my favorites. I believe that's all I would need to get the concept I'm looking to understand a little better. Appreciate your info.
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