Hello mfb
In the interval
(0<n<2x3x5x7x11x13) there are exactly
1650 numbers with the properties:
(1) they are
relative primes with regard to the prime numbers
(2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13),
Quote:
I doubt that statement. Why would it be -2 in the factors? Why would that statement depend on 176 at all?
Take 16 as an example, which has 2 as prime factor, but not 3.
In the interval 0 < n < 2*3, is there (3-2)=1 number that are relative prime to both 2 and 3? No, there are (2-1)(3-1)=2 numbers, one and five.
Reply:
For m=16 we have r=(3-2)=1. In the interval 0 < n < 2*3, five is the only number permitting a partition of 16 (5+11=16 is a partition, while 1+15 is not). Evidently, 11 which is not contained in the interval 0<n< 2x3 is not counted by the product r. But considering the inequalities
2x3<52-1, 2x3x5<72-1,
but 2x3x5x7>112, and, certainly 2x3x5x7x ...x pn>pn+12-1
it becomes clear that for sufficiently large pn (i.e. for pn>5), r will count all rp (rp=relative prime) in the interval 0<n<2x3x...pn.
The product r contains a factor (p-1) for every odd prime divisor p of the even number m, and a factor (p-2) for every prime number p<pn which is not a prime factor.
Thus, r is a function of the prime factors of m. It will admit the same value for all even numbers that contain the same prime factors. So we will have r=1650 for m=176=24x11, but also m=22, 44, 66, 88 and even 242=2x112 etc.
Considering all the odd prime numbers p<pn, r can admit 2n different values, each value of r corresponding to a distinct class of even numbers: any even number belonging to one and only one class.
For its simplicity the formula for r might have been known for a long time (A.M. Legendre 1752-1833 may have come across it when studying the distribution of numbers which do not contain the first n prime factors), but I did'nt find it in one of my textbooks.
Because 132<176<172 the partitions of 176 into (absolute) prime numbers form a non-empty subset (of the 825 partitions into relative primes).
Quote:
What is the special relevance of 13 and 17?
Reply:
For any m with pn2<m<pn+1 2 the rp which are <m will be prime numbers (and there will be two of them at least, partitioning m.
Dear mfb, excuse me for having to give to you some stuff to examine. And thank you in advance!