- 8,700
- 4,780
And since, according to you, nothing is objective, the word has lost its descriptive meaning. It can be applied nowhere. This shows that your notion of objectivity is not the standard one. Mine is.Fra said:I agree.
And since, according to you, nothing is objective, the word has lost its descriptive meaning. It can be applied nowhere. This shows that your notion of objectivity is not the standard one. Mine is.Fra said:I agree.
They are mapped in the usual informal way.Fra said:The question is what the ensemble IS (ie. how the mathematical abstractions map to physical states)
In practice, the mathematical ensemble is fundamental, once the situation is a bit complex. We make simplifying modeling assumptions all the time, and these determine the ensemble. Whereas the data we have to fit the parameters of the ensemble changes in amount and value, and hence cannot be taken to be fundamental.Fra said:I think there is no other choice but to assume that they are representative as you say. The limited instances we have is IMO more fundamental than the ensemble, since the true ensemble is never available for decision making anyway.
The probability of encountering the black state is objectively determined by whatever ensemble you assume. It has nothing to do wiith knowledge.
A. Neumaier said:And since, according to you, nothing is objective, the word has lost its descriptive meaning. It can be applied nowhere. This shows that your notion of objectivity is not the standard one. Mine is.
Studiot said:You are making flat assertions without substantiation, mathematical or otherwise sir!
One could 'assume' anything one liked.
But making assumptions casts serious doubt on the validity of any (derived?) result.
There were no assumptions in my scenario.
Others simply call objective what you call ''effectively objective''. There is no need to eliminate the uses for a word and then to substitute a more complex version for the previous usage.Fra said:We can still communicate right? So there IS indeed an "effective objectivity".
One can consider objectivity to be dependent on social agreements (and hence subject to potential change), without having to change the terminology. On the other hand, if Aristotle would visit the Earth today, I think he would agree with that much of our science is objective while some of what he thought is correct wasn't.Fra said:But the difference is that in my perspective, this is emergent and evolving. In particular it's a result of negotiating interactions between subjective views.
In the interest of easy communication, one should strive to use the most common terminology rather create one's own.Fra said:I also agree that your notion of objectivity, is indeed more common than mine.
A. Neumaier said:Others simply call objective what you call ''effectively objective''. There is no need to eliminate the uses for a word and then to substitute a more complex version for the previous usage.
It is impossible to derive anything without making assumptioons
But this is already an assumption (or alleged knowledge) Someone else seeing your setup for the first time will treat the black state not different from all the others.Studiot said:I disagree.
I am pointing out that the black state is unique because in any other state there is only one possible answer to the question Is a signal getting through?
If you have a screen and don't know anything about it, the black color has no special significance.Studiot said:What do you mean this is an assumption?
Why is any observer entitled to assume this?
A. Neumaier said:But in physics, the assumptions are part of the scientific consensus, and hence there is no choice. To describe a thermodyneamic equilibrium state of a chemical system, say, you _have_ to use the grand canonical ensemble, otherwise you don't get an equilibrium state.
Therefore in physics, probabilities are objective while in gambling they aren't.
Fra said:Yes there is a choice. Each individual still has the choice to accept majority consensus, or not. [...]
My only point is that the analogy to gambling is stronger that I think you say./QUOTE]
Physics has nothing in common with gambling.
Someone who knows that there is a highly predictive system and chooses an inferior one to serve ther same task is a fool.
You should practice what you preach.A. Neumaier said:Probabilities are never assigned to a single event but always to the sigma-algebra of all events - in physics language: to the ensemble.
It is indeed common and accepted terminology to talk about the probability of a single event.A. Neumaier said:In the interest of easy communication, one should strive to use the most common terminology rather create one's own.
A. Neumaier said:Physics has nothing in common with gambling.
Someone who knows that there is a highly predictive system and chooses an inferior one to serve ther same task is a fool.
DaleSpam said:You should practice what you preach.It is indeed common and accepted terminology to talk about the probability of a single event.
This is purely a semantic debate. If you use the frequentist definition of probability then probability does not depend on knowledge and can only be defined on an ensemble. If you use the Bayesian definition of probabilty then probability does depend on knowledge and can be defined on ensembles or on single events. Both definitions are common and well-accepted so to call one definition or the other a "myth" is rather absurd.
A. Neumaier said:The objective probability of a single event is 1 if it happens and 0 otherwise.
There may be also a subjective probability in the Bayesian sense, but such probabilities are physcally meaningless. And this is a discussion in a physics forum.
Yes, it is meaningless. For either the particle will be observed, or it won't. Thus the probability must be one or zero, but |psi|^2 typically isn't.SpectraCat said:What about |psi|^2? That can certainly be considered as a probability for a single event ... if you choose a point in space, |psi|^2 tells you the probability that the particle will be observed at that position. Is that physically meaningless as well?
Please give a more precise context for this claim.SpectraCat said:That would seem to be at odds with statements you have made on other threads ...
A. Neumaier said:Applying probability theory to single instances is foolish.
Not every statement in a scientific discussion must be a scientific argument. And if you look at the context, you see that here ''applying probability theory'' meant ''deducing from a single case a probability'', which simply doesn't make sense.Physics Monkey said:How is this a scientific argument?
Hardly. doing something that I consider foolish and being a fool are worlds apart.Physics Monkey said:You're just baldly asserting your point of view and calling those who don't agree with you fools.
A. Neumaier said:Yes, if the gas is deterministic, and hence determined by the initial condition.
I am not that interested in money to accept your hypotheses. You may think of probabilities of single cases - these are very subjective, though. They have nothing to do with the probabilities used in physics.
In any case, since I don't know the properties of your 6-sided die, assigning probabilities is completely arbitrary. Unless I assume that the die is just like one of the many I have seen before, in which case I assign equal probabilities to each outcome, because I substitute ensemble probabilities for ignorance.
But if your die had painted 1 on each side, my choice of 2:6 based on my assumption would be 100% wrong.
Thus probabilities are based on _assumptions_, not on _knowledge_.
A. Neumaier said:Not every statement in a scientific discussion must be a scientific argument. And if you look at the context, you see that here ''applying probability theory'' meant ''deducing from a single case a probability'', which simply doesn't make sense.
Hardly. doing something that I consider foolish and being a fool are worlds apart.
I sometimes do foolish things, but don't think that this makes me a fool. And those who don't agree with me won't take my statement that ''Applying probability theory to single instances is foolish'' seriously anyway. Thus the statement is harmless.
Let us be specific. The probability of decay of a radium atom in the next 10 minutes is a constant independent of anyone's knowledge. It had that value even before there were physicists knowing about the existence of radium. No amount of subjectivity in the views about beauty and symmetry, relevant degrees of freedom, sources of error changes this fact.Physics Monkey said:I claim the probabilities used in physics are highly subjective. ?
They may be based on knowledge. They may also be based on ignorance or false information, unchecked belief, etc.. But all this is irrelevant for physics. Once your assumptions specified the ensemble in question, the probabilities are objectively determined. No matter whether you can calculate them, or whether you have any knowledge about the system so defined.Physics Monkey said:Assumptions are based on knowledge. ?
This only implies that the guesses made depend on your knowledge. But the probabilities are not dependent on whether you guess them well or poorly. Nature doesn't care about our knowledge, it doesn't change its behavior when we get to know something new. And physics is about the properties of Nature, not about the psychology of human knowledge.Physics Monkey said:You assign probabilities to the die rolls based on your knowledge and experience with other die. You want to make the best guess you can based on your limited knowledge. It's ok to be 100% wrong so long as you made a good guess. If you get to roll the die many times then you can improve your guess. ?
I wasn't telling someone they're doing something foolish. I was telling something about my standards of judging, not meaning anyone in particular. If you felt offended, I apologize.Physics Monkey said:Telling someone they're doing something foolish still has no place in a scientific discussion.
A. Neumaier said:But the probabilities are not dependent on whether you guess them well or poorly. Nature doesn't care about our knowledge, it doesn't change its behavior when we get to know something new. And physics is about the properties of Nature, not about the psychology of human knowledge.
A. Neumaier said:The objective probability of a single event is 1 if it happens and 0 otherwise.
A. Neumaier said:Yes, it is meaningless. For either the particle will be observed, or it won't. Thus the probability must be one or zero, but |psi|^2 typically isn't.
|psi|^2 is the probability for observing the position in the ensemble of _all_ particles prepared in the same state psi, but says nothing about any particular such particle.
Please give a more precise context for this claim.
I have been doing a lot of practical work in uncertainty analysis (including FORM, SORM and various other engineering techniques). I even did research in advanced methods of uncertainty estimation in complex settings; see http://arnold-neumaier.at/clouds.htmlStudiot said:Take for instance limit state design.
Or bridge strength assessment.
Or diversity as applied to electrical installation design
Or the error term as applied to many mathematical calculations.
You state that single event probability is either 1 or zero.
In the case of my bridge example this implies that a bridge either collapses or it doesn't.
In reality the bridge may suffer a partial collapse, indeed some bridges may suffer a small partial collapse (=degradation) on every use until finally that last straw walks over it.
On what basis do you make the claim that Bayesian probabilities are physically meaningless? You can use them to make predictions, test hypotheses, and all of the other things that you would expect to be able to do with probabilities in physics. Your claim seems to represent simply a personal distaste for Bayesian reasoning rather than an informed understanding of how it can be used in science.A. Neumaier said:There may be also a subjective probability in the Bayesian sense, but such probabilities are physcally meaningless. And this is a discussion in a physics forum.