One-to-One Intervals Problem #5 - UGNotesOnline

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Homework Statement


I'm trying to do problem #5 on this worksheet
http://ugnotesonline.com/attachments/008_t1.5pst.pdf

Homework Equations


none

The Attempt at a Solution


(a) I tried to take the derivative of the function in the intergral so I could see where it was increasing and decreasing and prove that it was one-to-one but that didn't work.

(b) I don't even know what this part is trying to ask.
 
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lutya2 said:
(a) I tried to take the derivative of the function in the intergral so I could see where it was increasing and decreasing and prove that it was one-to-one but that didn't work.
Try again and show us your work because that is as far as I can see the easiest approach. Remember that if f is everywhere differentiable and the derivative is strictly positive, then the function is strictly increasing.

For b, the notation [itex]f^{-1}(x)[/itex] denotes the inverse function. That is the function such that
[tex]f^{-1}(f(x)) = f(f^{-1}(x)) = x[/tex]
for all x. (its existence is guaranteed by part a). To solve this part use the chain rule as follows:
[tex]\frac{d(f \circ f^{-1})(x)}{df^{-1}} \times \frac{df^{-1}(x)}{dx} = \frac{d(f^{-1} \circ f)(x)}{dx}[/tex]
You should be able to evaluate everything here except [tex]\frac{df^{-1}(x)}{dx}[/tex] so you can solve the problem.

HINT:
[tex]\frac{d(f \circ f^{-1})(x)}{df^{-1}} = \frac{df(x)}{dx}[/tex]

EDIT:
Also in case you didn't know [tex]g|_{x=0}[/tex] just means g(0), so in b you're just asked to evaluate the derivate at 0.