Orbital Energy of a binary star system

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In a binary star system with both stars having mass M and a semimajor axis a, the total energy can be described primarily as gravitational potential energy when the stars are at apocenter, where their velocities are nearly zero. The potential energy for each star is calculated as -Gm^2/2a, leading to a total energy of -Gm^2/a for the system. The discussion raises the question of whether the stars should have the same initial angular momentum and considers the implications of extreme eccentricity on energy contributions. It also explores the concept of simplifying the two-body problem by treating the system as a one-body problem centered at the barycenter. Overall, the analysis focuses on the relationship between kinetic and potential energy in highly eccentric orbits.
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Homework Statement



Say you have a binary star sytem. Both stars have mass M and semimajor axis a. The orbits are extremely eccentric (e is approximately 1). How would you describe the energy of the system?

Homework Equations



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The Attempt at a Solution



Basically I'm very unconfident about my answer and feel like I'm blanking on basic physics. I imagined the stars both at apocenter at some initial time. With such an eccentric orbit the velocities would be nearly zero here, so the total energy of each stars orbit would be quite nearly all potential energy.

-Gmm/r where r is distance to the barycenter or 2a so the potential energy of each star is -(Gm^2)/2a. So the sum of the PE's would be 2 times this amount and therefore the total energy of the orbit is -(Gm^2)/a

Is this valid?
 
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Essentially zero velocity at apastron would be a very special case.

This might be of use - http://instruct1.cit.cornell.edu/courses/astro101/java/binary/binary.htm

http://www.astro.cornell.edu/academics/courses/astro201/bin_orbits.htm
http://filer.case.edu/sjr16/advanced/stars_binvar.html

See this page - http://csep10.phys.utk.edu/astr162/lect/binaries/visual.html - which also has an applet.

Should the two stars have the same initial angular momentum?

I was trying to think of a way to generalize circular binary orbits - e.g.
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/orbv.html#bo
 
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Astronuc said:
Essentially zero velocity at apastron would be a very special case.

This is understandable, but would it not be possible to have orbits so eccentric that apocenter velocity would be negligable in contribution to energy? Do not be concerned with practicality or realism. I imagine this being an approximate model for a collision scenerio with both objects starting at rest where the exaggerated eccentricity allows us to throw the objects as nearly directly towards one another as an orbit can allow.
 
If the kinetic energy was negligible, then at apastron, the total energy (neglecting the rotational energies of the stars) would simply be the gravitational potential energy at that distance/separation.

The java applets show that e=1 is extremely eccentric with little overlap of the orbits.

But I was wondering about a more general case. I think one is assuming not only the same mass, but same eccentricity and angular momentum, i.e. the same (or symmetric) orbital parameters for both stars.
 
Astronuc said:
If the kinetic energy was negligible, then at apastron, the total energy (neglecting the rotational energies of the stars) would simply be the gravitational potential energy at that distance/separation.

Would -GM^2/2a be an acceptable description of total energy or am i misinterpreting center of mass? Could you not say the two masses are m/2 and 2m and turn it into a one body with one oject stationary at the barycenter and the other following the same orbit in the two body?

But I was wondering about a more general case. I think one is assuming not only the same mass, but same eccentricity and angular momentum, i.e. the same (or symmetric) orbital parameters for both stars.

Well, wouldn't that be implicit in having a two body problem where m1=m2=m?
 
Well, wouldn't that be implicit in having a two body problem where m1=m2=m?
No - why would it? In addition to m1 = m2, one would need m1v1r1 = m2v2r2, no? And the two mass would have to be in phase in their orbits.

Orbital mechanics in not my specialty, and it's been a long time since I've sat down and worked through such material.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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