Orthogonality of Legendre Polynomials from Jackson

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the derivation of the orthogonality of Legendre Polynomials as presented in Jackson's "Classical Electrodynamics." The key equations referenced are Equation 3.17 and Equation 3.18, which involve integration by parts. The user initially struggles with the transition between these equations but ultimately realizes the application of integration by parts, specifically using the terms \( u = P_{\ell'} \) and \( v = (1-x^2) \frac{dP_{\ell}}{dx} \). This realization clarifies the derivation process and confirms the orthogonality condition.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Legendre Polynomials
  • Familiarity with integration by parts
  • Knowledge of differential calculus
  • Basic concepts of classical electrodynamics
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation of Legendre Polynomials in Jackson's "Classical Electrodynamics"
  • Review integration techniques, particularly integration by parts
  • Explore applications of Legendre Polynomials in physics
  • Investigate the properties and applications of orthogonal functions
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Students and professionals in physics, particularly those studying classical electrodynamics, mathematicians focusing on polynomial functions, and anyone interested in advanced calculus techniques.

Demon117
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Hello all!

I am trying to work through and understand the derivation of the Legendre Polynomials from Jackson's Classical electrodynamics. I have reached a part that I cannot get through however. Jackson starts with the following orthogonality statement and jumps (as it seems) in his proof:

Equation 3.17 states:

\int P_{l'}[\frac{d}{dx} ([1-x^{2}]\frac{dP_{l}}{dx})+l(l+1)P_{l}(x)]dx=0

He mentions integration by parts on the "first term" but I don't see how he gets to

Equation 3.18:

\int [(x^{2}-1)\frac{dP_{l}}{dx} \frac{dP_{l'}}{dx} +l(l+1)(P_{l'}(x)P_{l}(x))]dx=0

I don't see this. Could someone please explain or give a hint to the intermediate step here? I'm afraid I just do not see it. Thanks.
 
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You understand integration by parts, yes? To wit,

\int udv = uv-\int vdu

So by the chain rule we can also say

\int u \frac{dv}{dx}dx = uv-\int v \frac{du}{dx}dx

So it is easy to see that u=P_{\ell'} and v=\left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right]. In this manner we arrive at

\int_{-1}^1 P_{\ell'} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] dx = \left. P_{\ell'} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \right|^{x=1}_{x=-1} - \int_{-1}^1 \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \frac{d P_{\ell'}}{dx} dx

The first term works out to be zero obviously and thus we say that,

\int_{-1}^1 P_{\ell'} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] dx = \int_{-1}^1 \left[ \left(x^2-1\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \frac{d P_{\ell'}}{dx} dx
 
Born2bwire said:
You understand integration by parts, yes? To wit,

\int udv = uv-\int vdu

So by the chain rule we can also say

\int u \frac{dv}{dx}dx = uv-\int v \frac{du}{dx}dx

So it is easy to see that u=P_{\ell'} and v=\left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right]. In this manner we arrive at

\int_{-1}^1 P_{\ell'} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] dx = \left. P_{\ell'} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \right|^{x=1}_{x=-1} - \int_{-1}^1 \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \frac{d P_{\ell'}}{dx} dx

The first term works out to be zero obviously and thus we say that,

\int_{-1}^1 P_{\ell'} \frac{d}{dx} \left[ \left(1-x^2\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] dx = \int_{-1}^1 \left[ \left(x^2-1\right)\frac{dP_\ell}{dx}\right] \frac{d P_{\ell'}}{dx} dx

Of course I understand Integration by parts, and in fact I just barely started it myself so this whole conversation is null. Thank you for your time, but I just had an aha! moment :) Sorry about that.
 

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