Osmotic pressure, question on derivation (TD)

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the derivation of osmotic pressure in thermodynamics, specifically the transition from equation (11) to (12) in a referenced paper. The author explains the use of Taylor series expansion to simplify the expression for thermodynamic probability W, emphasizing the linearization process by dropping higher-order terms when v/V is small. Participants seek clarification on manipulating the denominator in the equation, with one contributor detailing how to replace terms to achieve the desired form. The conversation highlights the challenges in understanding the mathematical transformations involved in the derivation. Overall, the thread provides insights into the complexities of thermodynamic calculations related to osmotic pressure.
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I'm currently reading about thermodynamics and osmosis and I happened to stumble across this paper. There is one thing I don't really understand, though.. In chapter 8 the author wishes to give a thermodynamic explanation of the osmotic pressure so I've been reading through the derivation. When calculating the thermodynamic probability W (page 20), how do I go from (11) to (12)?

http://arxiv.org/ftp/physics/papers/0305/0305011.pdf
 
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since v/V is small, the author expanded the expression in a Taylor series expansion and dropped any terms that are quadratic (or higher powers) in v/V, keeping only the independent and linear terms. This is called linearizing the equation - a very common device.
 
Would you mind elaborating on the taylor expansion?
 
a Taylor expansion is an expansion of a function in a power series. It is taught in calculus class. All you need here is the fact that 1/(1 + v/V) can be replaced with 1 - v/V when v << V. Do that and collect all the linear terms. For instance

(1+v/V)(1+2v/V)(1+3v/V) = 1 + (1+2+3) v/V + ...

where the dots represent quadratic or higher terms that were dropped from the equation.
 
I'm still not following. I solved it for the numerator, which yielded 1-(1+2+3+...)v/V. By reverse engineering (12), the denominator must be 1-v/V_0. But since the numerator was divided by V to obtain 1-v/V the denominator must too. How do I solve it for the denominator?

$$
V_0/V - v/V
$$
 
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As I said, you can replace 1/(V0 - nv) = (1/V0)1/(1 - nv/V0) with (1/V0)(1 + nv/V0).
 
I did that, and now I get (after dropping higher power terms)
$$
(V/V_0)^{n-1} \cdot (1 - v/V + v/V_0 -2v/V + 2v/V_0 - ...) = (V/V_0)^{n-1} \cdot (1 - (1+2+3+...)v/V + (1+2+3+...)v/V_0)
$$
which leaves me with a (V/V_0)^(n-1) in front of the wanted expression. I don't see how to get around this.
 
bump

also meant to say (V/V_0)^n
 
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