Particle Velocity: Speed for 1m Wavelength?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the velocity of particles, specifically electrons and neutrons, in relation to their wavelength, particularly when considering a wavelength of 1 meter. The topic touches on the concept of matter waves and their potential macroscopic dimensions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the calculation of velocity using the de Broglie wavelength formula and question the implications of achieving a wavelength of 1 meter for particles. There are inquiries about the realism of macroscopic matter waves and the energy calculations associated with such low velocities.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with each other's calculations and assumptions, providing feedback on the accuracy of units and the interpretation of energy levels. Some suggest that the velocity calculated appears unrealistically low, while others explore the implications of energy quantization for bound particles.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of ambiguity in the problem statement regarding the definition of "macroscopically" and the constraints on energy levels for bound particles. The discussion also highlights the need for clarity in calculations involving massive particles and their associated energies.

ognik
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Homework Statement


To what velocity would an electron (neutron) have to be slowed down, if its wavelength
is to be I meter? Are matter waves of macroscopic dimensions a real possibility?

2. Homework Equations

I have assumed this could apply to pretty much any free particle of mass m, and is an introductory question only in nature.

3. The Attempt at a Solution

I have added the units below

I took ##p=\frac{h}{\lambda}##, with ##\lambda=1m##, so that in general for particles, ##v = \frac{h}{m} = \frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} J.s} {1m \times 9.1 \times 10^{-31}kg} = 7.28 \times 10^{-4} m.s^{-2}##?

For the 2nd part of the question, it seems to me that the velocity is unrealistically slow for a free particle, and would be more so for those with higher mass. I find the 2nd part of the question a little ambiguous, but assuming they are referring to wavelengths of the order of 1m, it would seem from this that waves of macroscopic dimensions are unlikely?
 
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Your calculations are missing units.
ognik said:
I find the 2nd part of the question a little ambiguous, but assuming they are referring to wavelengths of the order of 1m, it would seem from this that waves of macroscopic dimensions are unlikely?
Well, depends on "macroscopically". Double-slit experiments with electrons, atoms and even small molecules have been performed. Bose-Einstein condensates allow to reach even lower energies, with wavelengths of millimeters.
 
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mfb said:
Your calculations are missing units.Well, depends on "macroscopically". Double-slit experiments with electrons, atoms and even small molecules have been performed. Bose-Einstein condensates allow to reach even lower energies, with wavelengths of millimeters.

I had read about that, but supposed that for this question they wanted a reply based on the velocity I found; I really can't read much into that velocity myself. I wonderede about quantisation of energy, so used ##\Delta E = h \nu = \frac{hv}{\lambda} = 4.8 \times 10^{-37}J = 3 \times10^{-18} eV ## - this looks too low to me, wouldn't there be a minimum energy ?
 
There is no minimal energy - unless you constrain the spread of the particle (e.g. to 1 meter).
Be careful with the energy calculation here: for massive particles, the product of frequency and wavelength is not the speed of the particle. You need a different way to calculate it.
 
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mfb said:
There is no minimal energy - unless you constrain the spread of the particle (e.g. to 1 meter).
Be careful with the energy calculation here: for massive particles, the product of frequency and wavelength is not the speed of the particle. You need a different way to calculate it.
Thanks mfb, point to remember.

Firstly, is my velocity calculation OK?

In the absence of any known potential, we can use the KE, where ##T=\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = 5.03 \times 10^{-38} J = 3.15 \times 10^{-19} eV## ? Still seems very low?

On a side point - for a bound particle (eg electron in an atom) - then there would be a minimum energy corresponding to the lowest energy level?
 
ognik said:
Firstly, is my velocity calculation OK?
Should be m/s, but apart from that it looks fine.
ognik said:
Still seems very low?
Well, it is very low.
ognik said:
On a side point - for a bound particle (eg electron in an atom) - then there would be a minimum energy corresponding to the lowest energy level?
Sure. On the other hand, the zero is a bit arbitrary for the potential. But you have a minimal kinetic energy.
 
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mfb said:
Should be m/s, but apart from that it looks fine.
Well, it is very low.
Sure. On the other hand, the zero is a bit arbitrary for the potential. But you have a minimal kinetic energy.
Oops on the m/s.
I was expecting to find the energy of the order of 1eV, if an electron got knocked out of a ground state orbital for example, wouldn't it have at least that amount of energy? I'm wondering if the value I got is reasonable (given that we are using more classical physics)?
 
Well, typically electrons have way shorter wavelengths - that's what the calculation is showing.
 
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