Particle with spin 1 in a non perturtuvative interaction

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a quantum mechanics problem involving a particle with spin s=1 and a non-perturbative interaction. The original poster is tasked with finding the stationary states and energies of the system, as well as determining the probability of the particle transitioning to a different spin state over time.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the structure of the Hamiltonian and the implications of the non-perturbative interaction on the energy states. There are attempts to diagonalize the Hamiltonian and express the initial state in terms of the eigenstates. Questions arise regarding the correct time evolution of states and the representation of states as column vectors.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on each other's approaches. Some guidance has been offered regarding the representation of states and the time evolution of eigenstates. Multiple interpretations of the problem are being explored, particularly concerning the transition probabilities and the representation of the initial state.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of maintaining orthogonality among eigenstates and the implications of using different bases for representing states. There is also mention of the need to adhere to homework constraints, such as not providing complete solutions.

WarDieS
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Hi, i have been trying to figure how to solve this problem, i just don't know how to proceed

Homework Statement


A particle with spin s=1 has due to rotational invariance all three states [itex]|s_z\rangle=1[/itex], [itex]|s_z\rangle=0[/itex] and [itex]|s_z\rangle=-1[/itex] degenated with energy [itex]E_0>0[/itex]. Then its introduced an interaction non perturbative V

[itex]V=-\Delta\left(\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> 1 & 1 & 1\\<br /> 1 & 1 & 1\\<br /> 1 & 1 & 1<br /> \end{array}\right)[/itex]

a) Obtain stationary states and energies of the system
b) If in [itex]t=0[/itex], the particle has its third component with spin [itex]+\hbar[/itex] which is the probability that after some time its [itex]-\hbar[/itex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


a)
So what i tried is this, since all three states have the same energy and those are eigenstates of the hamiltonian, the hamiltonian must have the form

[itex]H=E_0\left(\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> 1 & 0 & 0\\<br /> 0 & 1 & 0\\<br /> 0 & 0 & 1<br /> \end{array}\right)[/itex]

So if we add H'=H+V and diagonalize we get

[itex]\left|\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> E_0-\Delta-\lambda & -\Delta & -\Delta\\<br /> -\Delta & E_0-\Delta-\lambda & -\Delta\\<br /> -\Delta & -\Delta & E_0-\Delta-\lambda<br /> \end{array}\right|[/itex]
So the characteristic equation is
[itex](E_0-\lambda)(E_0-3\Delta-\lambda)=0[/itex]
So we get the energies and the states
[itex](E_0,{-1,0,1})[/itex]
[itex](E_0,{-1,1,0})[/itex]
[itex](E_0-3\Delta,{1,1,1})[/itex]

I just want to know if this is the correct move or not

b)
i don't know how to approach this, but i guess all i have to do is add the evolution term on each eigenstate [itex]e^{-i E_0 t/\hbar}[/itex] and do [itex]v^\dagger v[/itex]

Thanks for your help :)
 
Last edited:
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WarDieS said:
So we get the energies and the states
[itex](E_0,{-1,0,1})[/itex]
[itex](E_0,{-1,1,0})[/itex]
[itex](E_0-3\Delta,{1,1,1})[/itex]

I just want to know if this is the correct move or not

Yes, that looks good!

... but i guess all i have to do is add the evol ution term on each eigenstate [itex]e^{-i E_0 t/\hbar}[/itex] and do [itex]v^\dagger v[/itex]

I think you might have the right idea. Can you "expand" the ##|s_z=+\hbar \rangle## state in terms of your eigenstates of the full Hamiltonian?
 
Last edited:
I am lost on this, what i think may work is this
I have to solve the equation

[itex]i\hbar\frac{\partial}{\partial x} \chi = H \chi[/itex]

where
[itex] \chi=\left(\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> \alpha(t) \\<br /> \beta(t) \\<br /> \gamma(t)<br /> \end{array}\right)[/itex]

The problem with this is that this gives a really complicated result with the system
[itex] i \hbar \dot{\alpha}(t)=(E_0-\Delta)\alpha(t)-\Delta(\beta(t)+\gamma(t))[/itex]
[itex] i \hbar \dot{\beta}(t)=(E_0-\Delta)\beta(t)-\Delta(\alpha(t)+\gamma(t))[/itex]
[itex] i \hbar \dot{\gamma}(t)=(E_0-\Delta)\gamma(t)-\Delta(\beta(t)+\alpha(t))[/itex]

And this seems wrong to me

Thanks for help :)
 
At time t = 0, you know the state is ##|\psi(0)\rangle = |s_z = +\hbar\rangle##. How would you represent this state as a column vector?

Can you expand this column vector in terms of the eigenvetors
[itex]|u1\rangle =<br /> \left(\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> -1 \\<br /> 0 \\<br /> 1<br /> \end{array}\right)[/itex] [itex],|u2\rangle =<br /> \left(\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> -1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> 0<br /> \end{array}\right)[/itex] [itex],|u3\rangle =<br /> \left(\begin{array}{ccc}<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1 \\<br /> 1<br /> \end{array}\right)[/itex] ?
 
So if if we normalize the vector we have

[itex] |u_1\rangle = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left(\begin{array}{ccc} -1 \\ 0 \\ 1\end{array}\right)[/itex]

[itex] |u_2\rangle = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \left(\begin{array}{ccc} -1 \\ 1 \\ 0\end{array}\right)[/itex]

[itex] |u_3\rangle = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \left(\begin{array}{ccc} 1 \\ 1 \\ 1\end{array}\right)[/itex]
so [itex]a|u_1\rangle+b|u_2\rangle+c|u_3\rangle=\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 1 \\ 0 \\ 0\end{array}\right)[/itex]

gives us a system, when we solve this we have the vector

[itex]|s_z{_h}\rangle=\left(\begin{array}{ccc} \frac{-\sqrt{2}}{3} \\ \frac{-\sqrt{2}}{3} \\ \frac{1}{3}\end{array}\right)[/itex]

Now its turn for the time evolution
[itex]|s_z=\hbar\rangle=\left(\begin{array}{ccc} \frac{-\sqrt{2}}{3}\exp{\frac{-i E_1 t}{\hbar}} \\ \frac{-\sqrt{2}}{3}\exp{\frac{-i E_2 t}{\hbar}} \\ \frac{1}{3}\exp{\frac{-i E_3 t}{\hbar}}\end{array}\right)[/itex]

Since i am being asked for [itex]-\hbar[/itex], i think i need to do this with that vector

[itex]|s_z=-\hbar\rangle=\left(\begin{array}{ccc} \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\exp{\frac{-i E_1 t}{\hbar}} \\ \frac{-\sqrt{2}}{3}\exp{\frac{-i E_2 t}{\hbar}} \\ \frac{1}{3}\exp{\frac{-i E_3 t}{\hbar}}\end{array}\right)[/itex]

Now ot obtain the evolution with time i have to get the expectation value i assume

[itex]\langle s_z\rangle=\langle s_z=-\hbar|S_z|s_z=-\hbar\rangle[/itex]

Is this good?

Thanks again for your help :D
 
Your expressions for a, b, and c look good.

You didn't quite evolve in time correctly. It's only the eigenstates of H (i.e., |u1>|,u2>,|u3>) that have the simple time evolution of factors of exp(-iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex]), for appropriate values of E.

So, you found ψ(0) = a |u1> + b |u2> + c |u3>.

To find ψ(t), let each of the |u> states evolve in time with it's own exponential factor. Then combine into one column vector.
 
Your expressions for a, b, and c look good. But, you didn't quite evolve in time correctly. It's only the eigenstates of H (i.e., |u1>|,u2>,|u3>) that have the simple time evolution of factors of exp(-iEt/[itex]\hbar[/itex]), for appropriate values of E.

So, you found ψ(0) = a |u1> + b |u2> + c |u3>.

To find ψ(t), let each of the |u> states evolve in time with it's own exponential factor. Then combine into one column vector.

[EDIT: For example, at time t = 0 we have a|u1> = a ##\left(\begin{array}{ccc}
-1\\
0\\
1 \end{array}\right)##. To evolve this in time just multiply by a factor of ##e^{-iE_0 t/\hbar}##.]

EDIT 2: Also, as I understand it, you are not looking for ##\langle s_z \rangle##. Rather your a looking for the probability that at time t the system will be in the state ##|s_z = -\hbar \rangle = \left(\begin{array}{ccc}
0\\
0\\
1 \end{array}\right)##
 
Last edited:
I have been assuming that we always write our column vectors with respect to the basis in which you wrote your matrices for ##H_o## and ##V##. This is the basis where

##\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 1\\ 0\\ 0 \end{array}\right) = |s_{z=\hbar}\rangle## = state where z-component of spin is ##+\hbar##

##\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 0\\ 1\\ 0 \end{array}\right) = |s_{z=0}\rangle## = state where z-component of spin is 0

##\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 0\\ 0\\ 1 \end{array}\right) = |s_{z=-\hbar}\rangle## = state where z-component of spin is ##-\hbar##

It appears to me that you might be trying to switch to writing column vectors such that

##\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 1\\ 0\\ 0 \end{array}\right) = |u_1\rangle## , ##\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 0\\ 1\\ 0 \end{array}\right) = |u_2\rangle##, ##\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 0\\ 0\\ 1 \end{array}\right) = |u_3\rangle##

You can't do that since ##|u1\rangle## and ##|u2\rangle## are not orthogonal.
 
Ok, after some thinking i did this
I get this vector after diagonalizing the full hamiltonian and now i make sure they are orthogonal to each other

##|u_1\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 1\\ -1\\ 0 \end{array}\right) = |s_{z=\hbar}\rangle##

##|u_1\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 1\\ 1\\ -2 \end{array}\right) = |s_{z=\hbar}\rangle##

##|u_1\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 1\\ 1\\ 1 \end{array}\right) = |s_{z=\hbar}\rangle##

Expanding the initial function and adding the time evolution terms

## |i\rangle = \sum_i \psi_i \langle \psi_i | i\rangle ##

##|i\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}|u_1\rangle e^{\frac{-i E_0 t}{\hbar}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}|u_2\rangle e^{\frac{-i E_0 t}{\hbar}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}|u_3\rangle e^{\frac{-i (E_0-3\Delta) t}{\hbar}} ##


Now we have the initial state expanded using the full hamiltonian eigenstates, we must find the amplitude with the vector

## |s_z=-\hbar\rangle=\left(\begin{array}{ccc} 0\\ 0\\ 1 \end{array}\right) ##

that is

## \langle s_z=-\hbar|i\rangle=\left(\frac{-1}{3}+\frac{e^{i 3 \Delta t/\hbar}}{3}\right)e^{-i E_0 t/\hbar} = c_i ##

now its time to get the probability
##p(t)=|c_i|^2=\frac{1}{9}\left(2-2\cos(3\Delta t/\hbar\right) ##

which i really hope its the right answer :/ , atleast ## p(0)=0 ## which is a necessary condition.
 
  • #10
Yes. Very nicely done!
 
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  • #11
i am really grateful, thanks for your patience with me :D
 

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