Path Independence: Solving a Physics Problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding a proof related to path independence in the context of a physics problem, specifically involving integrals and vector fields. The original poster expresses confusion about certain steps in the proof, particularly regarding the treatment of infinitesimals and the implications of path dependence.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of treating an infinitesimal change, dr, and question the assumption that it can be considered as zero. There is a focus on the constancy of A(r') over small intervals and how this affects the integral. Some participants also raise questions about the notation used in the proof and its relevance to differential geometry.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and clarifications regarding the mathematical concepts involved. There is an exploration of different interpretations of the proof, particularly in relation to the context of differential geometry versus standard physics applications. No consensus has been reached, but several lines of reasoning are being examined.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the original poster is in their second year of a physics degree and may not have extensive experience with multivariable calculus or advanced mathematical notation, which could influence their understanding of the proof.

davon806
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Homework Statement


Hi,I am trying to understand the proof attached.
My problem is shown by a red arrow.Can someone explain those 2 steps?
And please answer it as simply as you can...Since I haven't done multivariable calculus..It is a physics course.Thanks

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Let say the integral of A(r') 。d(r') is L(r),so if you take the definite integral it becomes L(r+dr) - L(r),but in the proof they said dr is infinitesimal so dr = 0,so L(r+dr) - L(r) = 0 =/= A(r) 。d(r) ?
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If the integral was path dependent, then you couldn't combine the two integrals together because you could not guarantee that the integral from r to r + dr would pass through r0.

An infinitesimal dr does not mean dr = 0. It means that it is extremely small, the smallest you can get without being 0. Hence, you can consider A(r') to be constant over the interval r to r+dr and take it out of the integral.
 
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DrClaude said:
If the integral was path dependent, then you couldn't combine the two integrals together because you could not guarantee that the integral from r to r + dr would pass through r0.

An infinitesimal dr does not mean dr = 0. It means that it is extremely small, the smallest you can get without being 0. Hence, you can consider A(r') to be constant over the interval r to r+dr and take it out of the integral.
Sorry, why if A(r') is constant then it becomes A(r) ?
 
If you have a HW question with ∫ or ∂ in it, it's a safe bet it belongs in the Calculus HW forum. :wink:
 
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davon806 said:
Sorry, why if A(r') is constant then it becomes A(r) ?
I mean that it is constant in the interval r to r+dr, so A(r) = A(r+dr) = A(r+dr/2), etc. By convenience, you take the value to be the one at r. A is still a function of r.
 
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Hi Davon. The notation in the second last formula with two ##i##s is 'Einstein notation', which is used in differential geometry. Also, the expression ##d\phi(\underline{r})## has a rigorous meaning in differential geometry but in many other uses is either a piece of notation that has no stand-alone meaning, or else just a hand-wave. This leads me to guess that the text might be written in a differential geometry context.
Is that correct? The way of interpreting the proof is different in diff geom from what would be needed in other contexts.
 
andrewkirk said:
Hi Davon. The notation in the second last formula with two ##i##s is 'Einstein notation', which is used in differential geometry. Also, the expression ##d\phi(\underline{r})## has a rigorous meaning in differential geometry but in many other uses is either a piece of notation that has no stand-alone meaning, or else just a hand-wave. This leads me to guess that the text might be written in a differential geometry context.
Is that correct? The way of interpreting the proof is different in diff geom from what would be needed in other contexts.
Hi Andrew,it was actually part of the notes of my physics course,and I am still in my 2nd year of a physics degree so I guess it is irrelevant to the more advanced maths.My lecturer introduced Einstein notation for proving various vector identities(scalar product,vector product,curl,div,etc...)
 
Here's a way you can make the proof rigorous without any high-faluting maths:

Replace ##d\phi(\underline{r})## by ##\frac{d\phi(\underline{r}+h\underline{e}_i)}{dh}## where ##\underline{e}_i## is the ##i##th basis vector of ##\mathbb{R}^3## (I'm assuming here that the context is 3D Euclidean space).

Then on the right-hand side, divide by ##h##, replace ##d\underline{r}## by ##h\underline{e}_i##, and enclose both sides of the equation within ##\lim_{h\to 0}\Bigg(...\Bigg)##. Note that the LHS is, by definition, the ##i##th component of ##\nabla(\phi(\underline{r}))##.

Following steps similar to what's written above, but with these modifications, you should be able to deduce

$$\lim_{h\to 0}\left(\frac{d\phi(\underline{r}+h\underline{e}_i)}{dh}\right)=\underline{A}(\underline{r})\cdot\underline{e}_i$$

See how you go.
 

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