- #1

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div(v)=0 or Laplace(fi)=0

But the velocity field must also be conservative, so that it's potential fi exists. Does this follow from non-viscosity of the fluid? How do we prove it?

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- Thread starter Lojzek
- Start date

- #1

- 249

- 0

div(v)=0 or Laplace(fi)=0

But the velocity field must also be conservative, so that it's potential fi exists. Does this follow from non-viscosity of the fluid? How do we prove it?

- #2

- 12,133

- 160

(Integral) v(dot)dr

is path-dependent.

Hope this makes sense.

- #3

- 249

- 0

I know that general flow is not potential. The flow must not include whirlpools or more exactly: the rotor of v must be zero everywhere.

But this does not help to estimate the validity of aproximation: why would I care about accuracy of the aproximation if I already had an exact solution? I think that (non)conservativeness of the flow must be predicted in advance (before the calculation of velocity field), from some physical causes.

But this does not help to estimate the validity of aproximation: why would I care about accuracy of the aproximation if I already had an exact solution? I think that (non)conservativeness of the flow must be predicted in advance (before the calculation of velocity field), from some physical causes.

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- #4

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