matematikuvol
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y(t) = y0 +<br />
\int^{ t}_{t_0}<br />
f(s, y(s)) ds.
Picard’s method starts with the definition of what it means to be a solution: if you guess that a function
φ(t) is a solution, then you can check your guess by substituting it into the right-hand side of equation (2) and
comparing it to the left-hand side, which is simply φ(t) itself. The new idea is that the process of checking
each guess produces a new guess which, even if it is not the correct solution, is a better approximation
than the one you started with. In this way we obtain an iterative solution, with each new approximation
computed from the previous one by the right-hand side of equation (2). This should be reminiscent of
Newton’s method. In fact, the proof that Picard’s method produces a convergent sequence is similar to the
proof for Newton’s method.
How can I be sure that nth solution is better than n-1th solution. Is there some easy way to see this? Is there a case where this is incorrect?
Picard’s method starts with the definition of what it means to be a solution: if you guess that a function
φ(t) is a solution, then you can check your guess by substituting it into the right-hand side of equation (2) and
comparing it to the left-hand side, which is simply φ(t) itself. The new idea is that the process of checking
each guess produces a new guess which, even if it is not the correct solution, is a better approximation
than the one you started with. In this way we obtain an iterative solution, with each new approximation
computed from the previous one by the right-hand side of equation (2). This should be reminiscent of
Newton’s method. In fact, the proof that Picard’s method produces a convergent sequence is similar to the
proof for Newton’s method.
How can I be sure that nth solution is better than n-1th solution. Is there some easy way to see this? Is there a case where this is incorrect?