Please check my proof of sum of n choose k = 2^n

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof concerning the sum of binomial coefficients, specifically the claim that the sum of "n choose k" from k=0 to n equals 2^n. The subject area is combinatorics, particularly focusing on the binomial theorem.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of the proof presented, with some affirming its correctness while others question the rigor of the assumptions made, particularly regarding the conditions under which the binomial theorem applies.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes affirmations of the proof's validity, alongside suggestions for increased rigor in stating conditions. There is acknowledgment of the theorem's broader applicability under certain mathematical frameworks, indicating a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of explicitly stating that n should be a positive integer for the binomial theorem, while also recognizing that the theorem can hold under more general conditions with generalized binomial coefficients.

bennyska
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Homework Statement


(here (n,k) reads n choose k)(and again, please excuse that i don't use latex)
claim: (n,0) + (n,1) + (n,2) + ... (n,n) = 2n


Homework Equations



binomial theorem

The Attempt at a Solution


proof: sum(k=0 to n of (n,k)) = sum(k=0 to n of (n,k))*1k*1n-k.
by the binomial theorem, (x + y)n = sum(k=0 to n of (n,k))*xkyn-k, so letting x, y = 1, then (1 + 1)n = 2n = sum(k=0 to n of (n,k))*1k*1n-k = sum(k=0 to n of (n,k)).
 
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Looks correct, I see nothing wrong with it. (assuming you weren't given a set method such as mathematical induction to use)
 
no. but looking back on it, should i have been a little more rigorous? like being explicitly clear that for the binomial theorem, n has to be a positive integer. it's kind of implied, i guess.
 
The actual proof itself looks valid, you can state the conditions before it though.
 
bennyska said:
no. but looking back on it, should i have been a little more rigorous? like being explicitly clear that for the binomial theorem, n has to be a positive integer. it's kind of implied, i guess.

The theorem in fact remains true for any complex number n if you use generalized binomial coefficients and binomial series. See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Binomial_series
 

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