Pointwise and uniform convergence of sequence of functions

In summary, the pointwise function has a uniform convergence of pointwise. It is easy to show that limfn(x) as n->infinity is 0, but I am really stuck in uniform convergence. I know that fn converges uniformly to f if and only if for all ε>0 there is a natural number N so that for all n>=N |fn - f|<ε. If f(x) = 0, then there is no uniform convergence. However, if for x=0 we have |fn0(x0)|=1, then fn converges to f.
  • #1
Jncik
103
0

Homework Statement



show if
gif.gif
has a uniform convergence of pointwise

also we know that x gets values from 0 to 1

The Attempt at a Solution



for the pointwise I think its easy to show that limfn(x) as n->infinity is 0

but I am really stuck in uniform convergence

I know that fn converges uniformly to f if and only if for all ε>0 there is a natural number N so that for all n>=N |fn - f|<ε

if f(x) = 0

we get

gif.gif


now from this what can we do??

thanks in advance
 
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  • #2
So we have to decide whether

[tex]\sup\left|\frac{x^2}{(1-nx)^2+x^2}\right|\rightarrow 0[/tex].

To decide this, you'll need to calculate the maximum value of [tex]\left|\frac{x^2}{(1-nx)^2+x^2}\right|[/tex]. And then you'll need to check whether this converges to 0 or not...

To calculate the maximum value, you'll have to do the usual: calculate the first derivative, see when it is 0, etc...
 
  • #3
I guess it's really difficult to compute this by hand then...

it's really odd, my professor solves this in 3 lines but I'm 100% he's either wrong or doesn't explain the solution at all

he says that

for all n, there is a n0>n so that x0 = 1/n0

then he says

|fn0(x0) - f(x0)| = ... = 1

because of this we don't have uniform convergence...

i don't really understand it..
 
  • #4
No, it's not difficult to compute by hand at all! You just need to find the maximum of the function...

And what your professor proposed is indeed correct, but he doesn't really give much details. Your professor claims that for every n, there is an x such that fn(x)=1. This implies that the maximum of the function fn is greater then 1! But then the maximum cannot converge to 0. This implies that there cannot be uniform convergence...
 
  • #5
micromass said:
No, it's not difficult to compute by hand at all! You just need to find the maximum of the function...

And what your professor proposed is indeed correct, but he doesn't really give much details. Your professor claims that for every n, there is an x such that fn(x)=1. This implies that the maximum of the function fn is greater then 1! But then the maximum cannot converge to 0. This implies that there cannot be uniform convergence...

thanks I think I understand what he proposed now

but for the maximum of the function

i find that derivative is the following

[PLAIN]http://img24.imageshack.us/img24/9923/21098361.gif

for x = 0 it is 0

how can we figure out if the max is over 0?
 
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  • #6
Jncik said:
thanks I think I understand what he proposed now

but for the maximum of the function

i find that derivative is the following

[PLAIN]http://img24.imageshack.us/img24/9923/21098361.gif

for x = 0 it is 0

how can we figure out if the max is over 0?

Well, you'll need to figure out when the expression above is 0. So, for what x, does

[tex]\frac{2x(nx-1)}{(n^2x^2-2nx+x^2+1)^2}=0[/tex].

This is equivalent to the question: for what x, does

[tex]2x(nx-1)=0[/tex]...
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #7
well it's 0 for x = 0 and also it can be 0 for x = 1 and n = 1

but now I should figure out where's the max of the function

should I get values for x = -1, 0.5, 1.5 to find out what's the sign of f' or is there any other easier way?

for x = -1 I get -2*(n+1)/(n^2+2n+2)^2, because n is a natural this number is negative

for x = 0.5 I get (1-0.5n)/(0.25n^2-n+1.25)^2 and it depends on the n.. so i can't figure out if its positive or negative..

i ve never computed maximum of a function with n and x, our professor never showed us an example on this case and its really difficult for me to understand what's going on
 
  • #8
Jncik said:
well it's 0 for x = 0 and also it can be 0 for x = 1 and n = 1

No, that's not correct. Remember that n is a fixed value, you can't just set it to 1!
If 2x(nx-1)=0, then x=0 or nx-1=0. In this last case, we have x=1/n.
So for fn, we have the following possibilities for a maximum: 0 and 1/n. Now you will have to calculate both |fn(0)| and |fn(1/n)| to see which value is higher. This is the maximum of the function!
 
  • #9
micromass said:
No, that's not correct. Remember that n is a fixed value, you can't just set it to 1!
If 2x(nx-1)=0, then x=0 or nx-1=0. In this last case, we have x=1/n.
So for fn, we have the following possibilities for a maximum: 0 and 1/n. Now you will have to calculate both |fn(0)| and |fn(1/n)| to see which value is higher. This is the maximum of the function!

so because we get 0 and 1 and 1>0 this is the max, it would only converge if it was 0

thank you very much for your help, all I needed was a simple explanation like yours... thanks again :)
 

1. What is the difference between pointwise and uniform convergence of a sequence of functions?

Pointwise convergence means that for each point in the domain, the sequence of function values approaches the limit. Uniform convergence means that the entire sequence of functions approaches the limit at the same rate, regardless of the point in the domain.

2. Can a sequence of functions be pointwise convergent but not uniformly convergent?

Yes, a sequence of functions can be pointwise convergent but not uniformly convergent. This occurs when the rate at which the functions approach the limit varies at different points in the domain.

3. How do you prove that a sequence of functions is uniformly convergent?

To prove uniform convergence, one must show that the difference between the function values and the limit can be made arbitrarily small for all points in the domain, using a single value of the index of the sequence. This is known as the Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence.

4. Is uniform convergence equivalent to continuity?

No, uniform convergence is not equivalent to continuity. While a uniformly convergent sequence of continuous functions will have a continuous limit, a non-uniformly convergent sequence of continuous functions can also have a continuous limit.

5. Can a sequence of discontinuous functions converge uniformly?

Yes, a sequence of discontinuous functions can converge uniformly. This occurs when the discontinuities of the functions in the sequence "cancel out" as the sequence approaches the limit, resulting in a continuous limit function.

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