also we know that x gets values from 0 to 1
The Attempt at a Solution
for the pointwise I think its easy to show that limfn(x) as n->infinity is 0
but Im really stuck in uniform convergence
I know that fn converges uniformly to f if and only if for all ε>0 there is a natural number N so that for all n>=N |fn - f|<ε
if f(x) = 0
now from this what can we do??
thanks in advance