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Polarizability if a molecule in raman scattering

  1. Jul 23, 2013 #1
    Hello. I'm reviewing background information on Raman scattering and I've noticed that the polarizability scales with v+1 for Stokes transitions and v for anti-Stokes. Why is this and what assumptions are used in the derivation? An explanation or pointing me to a good reference would be appreciated.

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  3. Jul 24, 2013 #2

    Andy Resnick

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    I don't understand your question- what is 'v'?
  4. Jul 24, 2013 #3


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    I think v is the quantum number n of the oscillator involved.
    I can only give you a scetch:
    In Raman scattering you have matrix elements [itex]\langle v|x,y,z|v\pm 1\rangle \langle v\pm 1 | x,y,z |v\rangle [/itex]. If the vibrations are harmonic these expressions scale like v or v+1. Try to express x, y or z in terms of generation and anihilation operators b+ and b to prove this.
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