Polarizaition and susceptibility

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The discussion focuses on the relationship between polarization and susceptibility in linear isotropic media, highlighting the difference between time-dependent and frequency-dependent expressions. The time-dependent equation should be represented as a convolution integral, indicating that polarization depends on the electric field over time. When the material has an instantaneous response, the convolution simplifies to the linear relationship. The frequency-dependent susceptibility is explained as a phenomenon known as dispersion. A request for references that clearly illustrate the convolution relationship in textbooks is also made.
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In some unit, the relation of (linear) polarization and susceptibility can be written of

P(t) = \chi E(t)

but I also read some expression in other text reads

P(\omega) = \chi(\omega) E(\omega)

why change the time to frequency? Why polarization depends on frequency?
 
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Your equations are not really written correctly. The first one, the time dependent one, should really be written as a convolution: The polarization of a linear isotropic medium with a local but noninstantaneous response (but still independent of time) is:

P(t)=\int \chi(t-\tau)E(\tau)d\tau

And taking the Fourier transform of this equation provides your second expression.

If the material responds instantaneously and has no memory[\chi(t-\tau) = \chi\delta(t-\tau)], then the convolution integral reduces to your first expression.

Having a frequency-dependent susceptibility is simply dispersion.
 
Andy Resnick said:
Your equations are not really written correctly. The first one, the time dependent one, should really be written as a convolution: The polarization of a linear isotropic medium with a local but noninstantaneous response (but still independent of time) is:

P(t)=\int \chi(t-\tau)E(\tau)d\tau

And taking the Fourier transform of this equation provides your second expression.

If the material responds instantaneously and has no memory[\chi(t-\tau) = \chi\delta(t-\tau)], then the convolution integral reduces to your first expression.

Having a frequency-dependent susceptibility is simply dispersion.

Oh ... I just wonder why in textbook they don't say it is a convolution! So you mean in frequency domain susceptibility is the repsonse function?

BTW, can you tell me one text in which the author show clearly the convolution relation b/w polarization, susceptibility and field? I am writing a short report and need a reference
 
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