Potential Difference of Hollow Circular Cylinder

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the potential difference between two points along the axis of a hollow circular cylinder with radius a and length b, uniformly charged with total charge Q. The potential at the endpoint is derived using the integral kQ/b∫dx/√(a² + x²) from 0 to b, resulting in kQ/b * [ln(√(a² + b²) + b) - ln(a)]. The midpoint potential is calculated similarly, yielding 2kQ/b * [ln(√(a² + b²/4) + b/2) - ln(a)]. The participants confirm the correctness of the integration methods and discuss the differences in results when integrating over different ranges.

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rbrayana123
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Homework Statement


A hollow circular cylinder of radius a and length b, with open ends, has a total charge Q uniformly distributed over its surface. What is the difference in potential between a point on the axis at one end and the midpoint of the axis?

Homework Equations



U = kq/r

The Attempt at a Solution



dq = σdS

I decide to integrate along the length of the cylinder so:
dS = 2∏a dx
σ = Q/2∏ab

Therefore, dq = Q/b dx

Now, for the r, it's equal to √(a^2 + x^2) with x ranging from 0 to b for the endpoint and 0 to b/2 for the midpoint. (However, I double it)

So my integral for the endpoint:

kQ/b∫dx/√(a^2 + x^2) from 0 to b is kQ/b * [ln(sqrt(a^2 + b^2) + b) - ln(a)]

My integral for the midpoint is:

2kQ/b∫dx/√(a^2 + x^2) from 0 to b/2 is 2kQ/b * [ln(sqrt(a^2 + b^2/4) + b/2) - ln(a)]

Now I actually have a couple of questions regarding the integration. Is it correct? I used trig sub to integrate secx to get ln (secx + tanx) and substituted back in. Wolfram Alpha appears to agree: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integral+of+dx/sqrt(a^2+++x^2)

Next, for the second integral, why does integrating from -b/2 to b/2 get me a different answer?

Lastly, the potential difference seems messy. Is there a more elegant way to calculate out the potentials for both the endpoint and midpoint or is this appropriate?
 
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rbrayana123 said:
2kQ/b∫dx/√(a^2 + x^2) from 0 to b/2 is 2kQ/b * [ln(sqrt(a^2 + b^2/4) + b/2) - ln(a)]
Looks right.
Next, for the second integral, why does integrating from -b/2 to b/2 get me a different answer?
Are you sure it's different?
ln(sqrt(a^2 + b^2/4) - b/2) = 2 ln(a) - ln(sqrt(a^2 + b^2/4) + b/2)
Lastly, the potential difference seems messy. Is there a more elegant way to calculate out the potentials for both the endpoint and midpoint or is this appropriate?
I'm not aware of any easier way. It's not as though the final answer is paticularly simple and elegant.
 
I could either use a symmetry argument and integrate from 0 to b/2 but multiply by two OR integrate from -b/2 to b/2. It appears different when comparing those cases mostly because of the "+ x" term in the ln for the integral.

EDIT: I'm a little confused about the above equality you gave 0_0
EDIT2: Ahh, using ln identites and multiplying by the conjugate gets me that equality.

Thanks for the help sir. =)
 
Last edited:
rbrayana123 said:
I could either use a symmetry argument and integrate from 0 to b/2 but multiply by two OR integrate from -b/2 to b/2. It appears different when comparing those cases mostly because of the "+ x" term in the ln for the integral.

EDIT: I'm a little confused about the above equality you gave 0_0
You didn't post what you got for the other half integral, so I presumed it was
kQ/b * [ln(a) - ln(sqrt(a2 + b2) - b) ], i.e. swap the sign of b and swap the signs on the two terms. My identity was to show this is actually the same value.
 

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