Potential energy of pendulum in terms of displacement.

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around expressing the potential energy of a pendulum in terms of its displacement. Participants explore the use of Taylor approximations in this context, particularly focusing on the implications for both 1D and 2D pendulum models.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses difficulty in formulating the potential energy of a 1D pendulum based on displacement, initially feeling uncertain about their understanding.
  • Another participant suggests that a Taylor approximation is appropriate for this problem, particularly for small angles, and questions whether the original poster meant a 2D pendulum.
  • The original poster clarifies that they are referring to a 1D pendulum that oscillates in one direction, which could represent a 3D pendulum constrained to one axis.
  • The original poster also mentions a misunderstanding regarding their academic status, clarifying that they are studying physics and not finding the solution as straightforward as expected.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the use of Taylor approximations for small angles in the context of pendulum potential energy, but there is no consensus on the specifics of the model being discussed (1D vs. 2D).

Contextual Notes

The discussion does not resolve the specifics of the mathematical formulation or the assumptions underlying the use of Taylor approximations.

Nuclearturtle
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Hi guys, I'm having troubles finding how to write the potential energy of a 1D pendulum down. In terms of displacement however. This should be easy and it is, but my professor had this nice "clean" solution whereas mine is really dreadfull, any help? :)

edit: Ok nvm guys. I was thinking I went crazy for not finding it, since I almost have my physics license. But my professor used a Taylor approximation, nothing to worry about.
 
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By the way this is not homework, just a serious question to try to solve coupled harmonic oscillators :(
 
hi, turtle :) welcome to physicsforums

Do you still have a question about pendulums? I agree Taylor approximation is the way to go. (That's why they say 'for small angles'). Also, do you mean 2D pendulum. And what's a physics license?!
 
I meant a 1D pendulum in the sense that it only oscilates in one (!) direction. Of course this could represent a real 3D pendulum oscillating along just one axis.

Concerning the physics license, I didn't know how to sai it right, I meant physics degree or something like that. Let's just say I'm studying physics! This being the reason why I was so concerned not finding this "easy" solution :)

Thx for offering help anyway!
 

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