Hi guys, I'm having troubles finding how to write the potential energy of a 1D pendulum down. In terms of displacement however. This should be easy and it is, but my professor had this nice "clean" solution whereas mine is really dreadfull, any help? :) edit: Ok nvm guys. I was thinking I went crazy for not finding it, since I almost have my physics license. But my professor used a Taylor approximation, nothing to worry about.