(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); Quesion in approaching to Path Integral

I've just read "Quantum Mechanics and Path Integral" book which was written by Feynman, he said the phase of probability amplitude is proportional to "the ACTION [tex] S [/tex] in units of Quantum of action [tex] \hbar [/tex]. What is the reason to be that? Can any body explain it to me physically? Thank you for all replies.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Probability Amplitude phases

Loading...

Similar Threads - Probability Amplitude phases | Date |
---|---|

I Classical vs quantum wave amplitudes? | Oct 14, 2017 |

B Probability amplitude | May 2, 2017 |

I Many worlds and high-amplitude anomaly branches | Apr 14, 2017 |

I Amplitudes, Probabilities and EPR | Dec 1, 2016 |

B How does a Bell State lead to a probability in the CHSH game | Nov 5, 2016 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**