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According to Curie-Weiss law, the magnetic susceptibility obeys the equation [itex]\chi=\frac{C}{T-T_c}[/itex] where [itex]T_c[/itex] is the Curie temperature. People say this implies that the material is ferromagnetic for [itex]T<T_c[/itex],i.e. has non-zero magnetization in the absence of external magnetic field and then loses this property for [itex]T>T_c[/itex]. I have 2 questions now:
1) What is the domain of applicability of the mentioned equation?
2) A material is ferromagnetic if [itex]\chi \to \infty[/itex]. But the mentioned equation says that this only happens for [itex]T\to T_c[/itex] and below and above [itex]T_c[/itex], there is no ferromagneticity for the material. But in all references, it is said that below [itex]T_c[/itex] there is ferromagneticisty for the material. How can I solve this contradiction?
Thanks
1) What is the domain of applicability of the mentioned equation?
2) A material is ferromagnetic if [itex]\chi \to \infty[/itex]. But the mentioned equation says that this only happens for [itex]T\to T_c[/itex] and below and above [itex]T_c[/itex], there is no ferromagneticity for the material. But in all references, it is said that below [itex]T_c[/itex] there is ferromagneticisty for the material. How can I solve this contradiction?
Thanks