Problem with Integration/Two Different Integrals

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of the function sin(x)cos(x) using two different u-substitution approaches. Participants are examining the validity of each method and the resulting expressions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster presents two u-substitution methods, questioning the logical consistency of the differing results. Some participants affirm that the results differ by a constant, while others explore the relationship between the two expressions further.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights on the relationship between the two integration results. There is acknowledgment that both approaches are valid and lead to equivalent expressions when considering the constants of integration.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the constraints of standard integration techniques and the properties of trigonometric identities, specifically the Pythagorean theorem, to reconcile the differing results.

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Homework Statement



int[sin(x)*cos(x)]dx


Homework Equations



U-substitution

The Attempt at a Solution



Alternative #1:

u=sin(x)
du=cos(x)dx

intdu = u^2/2 + K = sin^2(x)/2+K

Alternative #2

u=cos(x)
du=-sin(x)dx

-intdu = -u^2/2 + K = -cos^2(x)/2+K

From where I'm sitting, both approaches to using U-substitution are equally valid, but yield different solutions. As near as I can tell, they are not equal. Can you please point out where I made a logical misstep?
 
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No mistake. They aren't equal. But they do differ by a constant. sin^2(x)=(-cos^2(x))+1. They both differentiate to sin(x)*cos(x).
 
Let's rewrite your two Ks as K1 and K2

Then we can equate these two expressions to get:

[tex]\frac{sin^2(x)}{2} + K_1 = - \frac{cos^2(x)}{2} + K_2[/tex]

Then rewrite sin2(x) as 1-cos2(x) via the Pythagorean theorem, and we get...

[tex]\frac{1 - cos^2(x)}{2} + K_1 = - \frac{cos^2(x)}{2} + K_2[/tex]

Then, adding cos2(x)/2 to both sides, we get...

[tex]\frac{1}{2} + K_1 = K_2[/tex]

And since K1 and K2 are both arbitrary, there exists a K1 and K2 such that this is true. Therefore, the equations are really the same, up to a constant.
 
Remarkable! Thank you!
 

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