Solving Variance Problem: Computing E(\hat{\theta}) and E(\hat{\theta}^2)

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The discussion focuses on computing the variance of the estimator \(\hat{\theta} = \frac{1}{n} \sum_{i=1}^n z_i\), where \(z_i = \theta + v_i\) and \(v_i\) are zero-mean normal distributions. The user initially calculates \(E(\hat{\theta})^2\) correctly as \(\theta^2\) but struggles with \(E(\hat{\theta}^2)\), leading to a variance of zero, which is incorrect. The mistake lies in neglecting the \(v_i^2\) term in the variance calculation, which contributes positively to the expected value. The correct expectation for \(E(v_i^2)\) is established as \(\sigma^2\), clarifying the error in the variance computation.
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Hello,
we are given N independent random variables z_i defined as follows:

z_i = \theta + v_i

where the r.v. v_i are zero-mean normal distributions v_i \sim N(0,\sigma^2).

I want to compute the variance of the estimator

\hat{\theta}=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n z_i

However I can't seem to get the right result (I get always zero).

I computed first E(\hat{\theta})^2=\theta^2.

Then I try to compute E(\hat{\theta^2}) as follows:

\frac{1}{n^2}E\left[\left(\sum_{i=1}^n z_i \right)^2\right] = \frac{1}{n^2}E\left[\left(\sum_{i=1}^n (z_i)^2 \right) + \left(\sum_{i=1}^n z_i \right) \left( \sum_{j\neq i} z_j \right) \right]

= \frac{1}{n^2}E\left[\sum_{i=1}^n z_i^2 \right] + \frac{n-1}{n}\theta^2

= \frac{1}{n^2}E\left[\sum_{i=1}^n (\theta^2 +2\theta v_i + v_i^2) \right] + \frac{n-1}{n}\theta^2

= \frac{1}{n}\theta^2 + \frac{n-1}{n}\theta^2

From this we get Var(\hat{\theta})=E(\hat{\theta}^2)-E(\hat{\theta})^2 = 0.
Where is the mistake?
 
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mnb96 said:
\frac{1}{n^2}E\left[\sum_{i=1}^n (\theta^2 +2\theta v_i + v_i^2) \right] + \frac{n-1}{n}\theta^2

= \frac{1}{n}\theta^2 + \frac{n-1}{n}\theta^2

This is wrong. You dropped the v_i^2 term.
 
uh...that's true! Thanks.

E(v_i^2) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}}\int_\mathbb{R} x^2 e^\frac{-x^2}{2\sigma^2} dx

This integral is indeed > \\ 0
 
Last edited:
mnb96 said:
uh...that's true! Thanks.

E(v_i^2) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}}\int_\mathbb{R} x^2 e^\frac{-x^2}{2\sigma^2} dx

This integral is indeed > \\ 0

In fact, E(v_i^2) = \sigma^2.
 
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