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Please if someone could help me understand something I saw in a proof. It's about proving that if X,Y is compact then their product (with product topology) is compact.
Suppose that X and Y are compact. Let F be an open cover for XxY. Then, for y in Y, F is an open cover for Xx{y}, which is compact. Hence F has a finite subcover
Fy = \{ U^{y}_{1}\times V^{y}_{1},...,U^{y}_{n}\times V^{y}_{n} \} [/itex] where y is in all V^{y}_{i}[/itex]<br /> <br /> This is the step I don&#039;t get. Why is y in all those sets? I understand y must be in at least one (to be covered) but why all? The proof uses this fact to construct a non-empty set so it&#039;s pretty crucial, but for the life of me I don&#039;t understand how to deduce it :(<br /> I was thinking maybe it&#039;s because of the axiom of choice, but I don&#039;t know much about that to even be sure it involves it.
Suppose that X and Y are compact. Let F be an open cover for XxY. Then, for y in Y, F is an open cover for Xx{y}, which is compact. Hence F has a finite subcover
Fy = \{ U^{y}_{1}\times V^{y}_{1},...,U^{y}_{n}\times V^{y}_{n} \} [/itex] where y is in all V^{y}_{i}[/itex]<br /> <br /> This is the step I don&#039;t get. Why is y in all those sets? I understand y must be in at least one (to be covered) but why all? The proof uses this fact to construct a non-empty set so it&#039;s pretty crucial, but for the life of me I don&#039;t understand how to deduce it :(<br /> I was thinking maybe it&#039;s because of the axiom of choice, but I don&#039;t know much about that to even be sure it involves it.