Proof by Contradiction: Converse of A(n) Holds for All n ∈ Z

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on using proof by contradiction to validate the converse of the statement that if n = 3q + 1 or n = 3q + 2, then n^2 = 3t + 1 for some t in Z. Participants clarify that assuming n^2 ≠ 3t + 1 while n = 3q + 1 or n = 3q + 2 does not constitute a valid proof by contradiction, as it merely proves the original statement directly. The focus should instead be on proving that for any n satisfying n^2 = 3t + 1, it follows that n must be of the form 3q + 1 or 3q + 2. Confusion arose regarding the structure of the proof, emphasizing the need to correctly identify the assumptions and conclusions. Ultimately, the key takeaway is the importance of correctly framing the proof to address the converse rather than the original statement.
UOAMCBURGER
Messages
31
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement


“If n = 3q + 1 or n = 3q + 2 for some q ∈ Z, then n 2 = 3t + 1 for some t ∈ Z.”
Use proof by contradiction to show that the converse of A(n) is true for all n ∈ Z.
For the proof by contradiction, on the answer sheet provided they have assumed n^2 = 3t+1 but n != 3q+1 and n != 3q+2.

Is it possible to have a valid proof by contradiction if you were to assume n = 3q+1 or n = 3q+2 is true for some n in Z, but n^2 != 3t+1 and then show that you can get n^2 into the form 3(.t..) + 1 ? where 3(.t..) is just obviously some multiple of 3... Hence a contradiction.?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
UOAMCBURGER said:
Is it possible to have a valid proof by contradiction if you were to assume n = 3q+1 or n = 3q+2 is true for some n in Z, but n^2 != 3t+1 and then show that you can get n^2 into the form 3(.t..) + 1 ? where 3(.t..) is just obviously some multiple of 3... Hence a contradiction.?
This would not be a proof by contradiction. It would just be proving the statement “If n = 3q + 1 or n = 3q + 2 for some q ∈ Z, then n 2 = 3t + 1 for some t ∈ Z” directly. The assumption that n^2 ##\ne## 3t+1 would be superfluous.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
tnich said:
This would not be a proof by contradiction. It would just be proving the statement “If n = 3q + 1 or n = 3q + 2 for some q ∈ Z, then n 2 = 3t + 1 for some t ∈ Z” directly. The assumption that n^2 ##\ne## 3t+1 would be superfluous.
Also, the problem is to prove the converse, not the original statement. So what you need to prove is
##\forall t, n \in \mathbb Z ## such that ## n^2=3t+1, \exists q \in \mathbb Z ## such that ## n=3q+1## or ##n=3q+2##
 
tnich said:
Also, the problem is to prove the converse, not the original statement. So what you need to prove is
##\forall t, n \in \mathbb Z ## such that ## n^2=3t+1, \exists q \in \mathbb Z ## such that ## n=3q+1## or ##n=3q+2##
oh that is why i was getting confused, because given statement A>B for a proof by contradiction you get A>~B and show some contradiction, hence my question about the order of the proof. I see what I've done, thanks.
 
UOAMCBURGER said:

Homework Statement


“If n = 3q + 1 or n = 3q + 2 for some q ∈ Z, then n 2 = 3t + 1 for some t ∈ Z.”
Use proof by contradiction to show that the converse of A(n) is true for all n ∈ Z.
For the proof by contradiction, on the answer sheet provided they have assumed n^2 = 3t+1 but n != 3q+1 and n != 3q+2.

Is it possible to have a valid proof by contradiction if you were to assume n = 3q+1 or n = 3q+2 is true for some n in Z, but n^2 != 3t+1 and then show that you can get n^2 into the form 3(.t..) + 1 ? where 3(.t..) is just obviously some multiple of 3... Hence a contradiction.?

Is n 2 supposed to be ##n^2?## If so, write it properly, as n^2.
 
Ray Vickson said:
Is n 2 supposed to be ##n^2?## If so, write it properly, as n^2.
yes its meant to be n2, and obviously I did NOT intentionally write it as n 2 ...
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Essentially I just have this problem that I'm stuck on, on a sheet about complex numbers: Show that, for ##|r|<1,## $$1+r\cos(x)+r^2\cos(2x)+r^3\cos(3x)...=\frac{1-r\cos(x)}{1-2r\cos(x)+r^2}$$ My first thought was to express it as a geometric series, where the real part of the sum of the series would be the series you see above: $$1+re^{ix}+r^2e^{2ix}+r^3e^{3ix}...$$ The sum of this series is just: $$\frac{(re^{ix})^n-1}{re^{ix} - 1}$$ I'm having some trouble trying to figure out what to...
Back
Top