How did my colleague conclude on equation (ii)?

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The discussion revolves around understanding the conclusion of a colleague's proof regarding the inequality (k+2)! ≥ 2^(k+1)(k+1). The initial confusion arises from whether the assumption (k+1)! ≥ 2^k k can be applied directly to derive the next step. It is clarified that (k+2)! can be expressed as (k+2)(k+1)!, leading to the conclusion that (k+2)! ≥ (k+2)2^k k. A more efficient proof method is suggested, emphasizing that k(k+2) > 2(k+1) for k ≥ 3, which simplifies the inductive step. The conversation highlights the importance of clear assumptions and efficient proof strategies in mathematical induction.
chwala
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Homework Statement
prove that,

##(n+1)!≥ 2^n. n## when ## n≥3##
Relevant Equations
mathematics induction
1599832781653.png

this is a solution posted by my colleague, i have a problem in understanding how he got to conclude on equation (ii)
1599832871622.png

is this not supposed to be ##(k+2)!≥ 2^{k+1} (k+1)##
##(k+2)(k+1)!≥ 2^{k+1} (k+1)## ?...
 
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Assume that ##(k+1)! \geq 2^k k##. Then notice that ##(k+2)! = (k+2)(k+1)!##, and since ##(k+1)! \geq 2^k k## by assumption, you have ##(k+2)! = (k+2)(k+1)! \geq (k+2)2^k k##.

You're trying to show that ##(k+2)!## is greater than ##2^{k+1}(k+1)## given that it holds for the case below, so you can't assume what's meant to be proven!
 
chwala said:
Homework Statement:: prove that,

##(n+1)!≥ 2^n. n## when ## n≥3##
Relevant Equations:: mathematics induction

View attachment 269193
this is a solution posted by my colleague, i have a problem in understanding how he got to conclude on equation (ii)
View attachment 269194
is this not supposed to be ##(k+2)!≥ 2^{k+1} (k+1)##
##(k+2)(k+1)!≥ 2^{k+1} (k+1)## ?...
The inductive assumption is that ##(k+1)!≥ 2^{k} (k)##, hence:
$$(k+2)! = (k+2)(k+1)! \ge (k+2)2^k (k)$$
 
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aaaaaaah i have seen it...
 
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There must be a neater way to do this. That proof you attached is quite laboured.
 
PeroK said:
There must be a neater way to do this. That proof you attached is quite laboured.

you mind showing a neater way now that i am conversant with how the solution was found...
 
You just need to state that ##k(k+2) > 2(k+1)## for all ##k \geq 3##. Then it follows that$$(k+2)! \geq k(k+2)2^k > 2(k+1) 2^k = (k+1)2^{k+1}$$
 
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For the inductive step, all that is required is:
$$(k+2)! = (k+2)(k+1)! \ge (k+2)2^k(k) > (k+1)2^{k+1} \ \ \ (\text{as} \ k + 2 > k+1 \ \text{and} \ k > 2)$$
 
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