Hi sciencegirl1
drawing a picture always seems to help, but in line with yyat's comments, but the geometric reasoning is as follows
first take a point on the plane
[tex]\textbf{p}_0 = (x_0,y_0,z_0)[/tex]
next take any other point on the plan
[tex]\textbf{p} = (x,y,z)[/tex]
the difference is a vector parallel to the plane
[tex]\textbf{p}-\textbf{p}_0 = (x- x_0,y-y_0,z-z_0)[/tex]
so if we have a vector normal to the plane
[tex]\textbf{n}= (a,b,c)[/tex]
then by definition this is perpindciular to any vector parallel to the plane, so
[tex]\textbf{n}*(\textbf{p}-\textbf{p}_0)= 0[/tex]
i'm not too sure what you want to do here, but if you want to prove this try writing a formula for a plane, find the normal vector, then take the dot product with the difference of any 2 points on the plane and see if you can show its 0